Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 154, Number 41: GOVERNMENT NOTICES
October 10, 2020
DEPARTMENT OF CITIZENSHIP AND IMMIGRATION
IMMIGRATION AND REFUGEE PROTECTION ACT
Ministerial Instructions with respect to the processing of applications for a permanent resident visa made by parents or grandparents of a sponsor as members of the family class and the processing of sponsorship applications made in relation to those applications
These Instructions are published in the Canada Gazette in accordance with subsection 87.3(6) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (the Act).
These Instructions are given, pursuant to section 87.3 and subsections 92(1.1) and (2) of the Act, by the Minister of Citizenship and Immigration as, in the opinion of the Minister, these Instructions will best support the attainment of the immigration goals established by the Government of Canada by seeing families reunited in Canada.
Scope
These Instructions apply to applications for a permanent resident visa of sponsors’ parents or grandparents made under the family class, referred to in paragraphs 117(1)(c) and (d) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations (the Regulations), respectively, as well as to sponsorship applications made in relation to those applications.
Conditions — interests to sponsor
The Department will accept interests to sponsor from persons interested in sponsoring a parent or grandparent. In order to be accepted, the interests to sponsor must be complete and submitted to the Department during the period of time established by these Instructions and using the electronic means made available for this purpose. Duplicate interests to sponsor will be removed, keeping only the most recent one.
For the purposes of these Instructions,
- (a) a working day does not include Saturdays or holidays within the meaning of subsection 35(1) of the Interpretation Act, and if New Year’s Day falls on a Saturday or a Sunday, a working day also does not include the following Monday; and
- (b) in 2020, the period during which a person can indicate their interest in making a sponsorship application begins at noon, Eastern daylight time, on October 13, and ends at noon, Eastern standard time, on November 3.
Interests to sponsor — submission by other means
If a potential sponsor is unable to submit an interest to sponsor by the electronic means made available by the Department due to a mental or physical disability, the Department may make an alternative format available. Any requests for an alternative format must be made between noon, Eastern daylight time, on September 30, and noon, Eastern standard time, on November 3. To be accepted, interests to sponsor submitted in an alternative format must be complete and received by the Department within 25 working days of the date that the alternative format was sent from the Department to the potential sponsor.
Invitations to submit a sponsorship application
Invitations to submit a sponsorship application will be issued to potential sponsors using a randomized selection process from among all non-duplicate interests to sponsor that have not yet been issued an invitation. Invitations issued by the Department are not transferable.
Number of applications to be accepted for processing in a year
Following the submission of interests to sponsor in fall 2020, removal of duplicates, randomization, and sending of invitations to apply, it is anticipated that there will be insufficient time for invited sponsors and their parents and grandparents to submit complete applications during the 2020 calendar year. In order to accommodate these factors, sponsorship applications resulting from the fall 2020 intake process will be received in early 2021.
A maximum of 10 000 sponsorship applications made in relation to applications for a permanent resident visa, which are made by sponsors’ parents or grandparents under the family class, will be accepted for processing in the 2021 calendar year, which begins on January 1, 2021, and ends on December 31, 2021. This maximum may be amended in accordance with any subsequent Instructions the Minister may provide.
If any applications are received before the end of December 2020, they may be counted toward the application cap of 10 000 for the 2021 calendar year.
Individuals who submit an interest to sponsor in 2020 but who are not invited to apply during the year may be given consideration in a subsequent year in accordance with any Instructions the Minister may provide.
Conditions — sponsorship applications
In order to be processed, any sponsorship application referred to in these Instructions that has not been returned under section 12 of the Regulations for not meeting the requirements of sections 10 and 11 of the Regulations — for example by not using all the applicable forms provided by the Department in the application package published on the website of the Department or by not including all information, documents and evidence referred to in paragraph 10(1)(c) of the Regulations — must meet the following conditions:
- (a) the sponsorship application is made by a person who, having indicated — during the period during which they could do so — their interest in making a sponsorship application by means that have been made available by the Department for that purpose, has been invited to make the application;
- (b) the sponsorship application indicates the same information, [name, date of birth, address, country of birth, copy of status in Canada document (including its number and must be one from the list of acceptable documents listed in the Guide 5772 — Application to Sponsor Parents and Grandparents, published on the website of the Department and as amended from time to time)] that was included with the interest to sponsor in relation to which the invitation to make a sponsorship application was issued by the Department, or in the case of any difference in information between the interest to sponsor and the sponsorship application, the application includes an explanation of the reason for the change in information and satisfactory evidence that the application pertains to the same potential sponsor identified on the interest to sponsor in relation to which the invitation to make a sponsorship application was issued by the Department;
- (c) the sponsorship application is accompanied by the documents required by the application package published on the website of the Department, as amended from time to time; and
- (d) the sponsorship application has been received by the Department within the period of 60 days after the day on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application. If, however, the sponsorship application and fees required to be paid pursuant to the Regulations are received within 60 days, but some documentation required by these Instructions or the Regulations is missing, the Department shall ordinarily grant the sponsor an extension of an additional 30 days, for a total of 90 days from the date on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application, to submit the missing documentation. If, however, the sponsor provides satisfactory evidence that they were unable to submit supporting documentation within the 60-day deadline established by these Instructions due to service disruptions caused by COVID-19, then the Department shall grant the sponsor an extension of 90 days, for a total of 150 days from the date on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application, to submit the missing documentation. If the missing documentation is not provided within the extended timelines, the application shall not be processed.
Conditions — permanent resident visa applications
In order to be processed, any permanent resident visa application referred to in these Instructions that has not been returned under section 12 of the Regulations for not meeting the requirements of sections 10 and 11 of the Regulations — for example by not using all the applicable forms provided by the Department in the application package published on the website of the Department or by not including all information, documents and evidence referred to in paragraph 10(1)(c) of the Regulations — must meet the following conditions:
- (a) the permanent resident visa application is made by an applicant sponsored by a person whose sponsorship application met all of the conditions for processing sponsorship applications established by these Instructions;
- (b) the permanent resident visa application is accompanied by the documents required by the application package published on the website of the Department, as amended from time to time; and
- (c) the permanent resident visa application has been received by the Department within the period of 60 days after the day on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application. If, however, the permanent resident visa application and fees required to be paid pursuant to the Regulations are received within 60 days, but some documentation required by these Instructions or the Regulations is missing, the Department shall ordinarily grant the applicant an extension of an additional 30 days, for a total of 90 days after the date on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application, to submit the missing documentation. If, however, the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that they were unable to submit supporting documentation within the 60-day deadline established by these Instructions due to service disruptions caused by COVID-19, then the Department shall grant the applicant an extension of 90 days, for a total of 150 days after the date on which the Department sent the sponsor an invitation to make a sponsorship application, to submit the missing documentation. If the missing documentation is not provided within the extended timelines, the application shall not be processed.
Order for processing
Applications meeting the applicable conditions established by these Instructions are processed in the order in which they are received by the Department.
Humanitarian and compassionate requests
A request made under subsection 25(1) of the Act from outside Canada and that accompanies an application that was not accepted for processing under these Instructions will not be processed.
Disposition of applications
Any application that does not meet the applicable conditions established by these Instructions will be returned.
Coming into effect
These Instructions take effect on September 29, 2020.
Ottawa, September 24, 2020
Marco E. L. Mendicino, P.C., M.P.
Minister of Citizenship and Immigration
DEPARTMENT OF CITIZENSHIP AND IMMIGRATION
IMMIGRATION AND REFUGEE PROTECTION ACT
Ministerial Instructions with respect to the submission of online applications for temporary resident visas and other documents due to reduced processing capacity during the COVID-19 (Coronavirus) pandemic
These Instructions are published in the Canada Gazette, in accordance with subsection 87.3(6) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act.
These Instructions are given, pursuant to section 87.3 and subsections 92(1.1) and (2), by the Minister of Citizenship and Immigration as, in the opinion of the Minister, these Instructions will best support the attainment of the immigration goals established by the Government of Canada.
These Instructions are consistent with the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act objectives, as laid out in section 3.
Authority for these Ministerial Instructions is pursuant to section 87.3 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act. Instructions are directed to officers who are charged with handling and/or reviewing certain applications for temporary residence by establishing conditions that must be met before the processing of an application or request.
Considerations
Recognizing the declaration by the World Health Organization regarding the pandemic of COVID-19 (Coronavirus);
Recognizing how the related response measures have reduced Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada’s capacity for processing applications, both in Canada and overseas; and
Noting that Canada’s immigration objectives, as laid out in section 3 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act, include the establishment of fair and efficient procedures to maintain the integrity of the Canadian immigration system.
Scope
These Instructions apply to new applications for temporary resident visas, work permits and study permits submitted to Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada on or after the coming into force of these Instructions.
Applications submitted from outside Canada to be submitted by electronic means — Temporary residence
All applications for a temporary resident visa (including a transit visa), a work permit, or a study permit submitted by foreign nationals who are outside Canada at the time of application must be submitted using electronic means (apply online).
The following foreign nationals who are outside Canada and submitting applications for temporary resident visas, work permits, and study permits may submit these applications by any other means that is made available or specified by the Minister for that purpose:
- Foreign nationals who, because of a disability, are unable to meet a requirement to make an application, submit any document or provide a signature or information using electronic means;
- Foreign nationals who hold an identity or travel document described in paragraph 52(1)(c) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations that was issued by a country, that does not prohibit travel to Canada, that the foreign national may use to enter the country of issue and that is of the type issued by that country to non-national residents, refugees or stateless persons who are unable to obtain a passport or other travel document from their country of citizenship or nationality or who have no country of citizenship or nationality; and
- Foreign nationals applying for a work permit who are intending to perform work under an international agreement or arrangement between Canada and one or more countries concerning seasonal agricultural workers.
Retention/Disposition
Applications received by Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship Canada on or after the coming into force of the Instructions that were not submitted by electronic means will not be accepted and processing fees will be returned, except in the case of foreign nationals who may submit an application by any other means that is made available or specified by the Minister for that purpose, in accordance with these Instructions.
Effective date
These Instructions take effect on October 1, 2020, and expire on January 31, 2021.
Ottawa, September 29, 2020
Marco E. L. Mendicino, P.C., M.P.
Minister of Citizenship and Immigration
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Ministerial Condition No. 20267a (variation to Ministerial Condition No. 20267)
Ministerial condition
(Paragraph 84(1)(a) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas on January 3, 2020, the Minister of the Environment received the prescribed information concerning the substance bentonite, lanthanian, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 302346-65-2, in accordance with subsection 81(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 and a request was made under subsection 313(1) of that Act to treat some of the information as confidential;
Whereas the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) have assessed information pertaining to the substance;
And whereas the ministers suspect that the substance is toxic or capable of becoming toxic within the meaning of section 64 of that Act;
And whereas the Minister of the Environment has previously imposed Ministerial Condition No. 20267 pertaining to the substance on May 28, 2020,
The Minister of the Environment, pursuant to subsection 84(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, hereby varies Ministerial Condition No. 20267 in accordance with the conditions of the following annex.
Jacqueline Gonçalves
Acting Assistant Deputy Minister
Science and Technology Branch
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
ANNEX
Ministerial Condition No. 20267a (variation to Ministerial Condition No. 20267)
(Subsection 84(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
1. Sections 1 to 15 of Ministerial condition No. 20267 are replaced by the following:
1. The following definitions apply in these ministerial conditions.
- “alkalinity” means the concentration of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in water, expressed in milligrams of CaCO3 per litre of water (mg/L).
- “authorized personnel” means an employee of Phoslock or any person hired by Phoslock who was informed of the present ministerial conditions and provided with the substance safety data sheet.
- “chemical remediation” means the use of chemicals to control contaminants in a lake, including but not limited to the use of iron-containing or aluminum-containing products for remediation.
- “dissolved lanthanum” means lanthanum remaining in a water sample after filtration through a 0.2 micrometres filter.
- “lake” means either
- (a) Pigeon Lake located within the County of Wetaskiwin No. 10 and the County of Leduc, Alberta;
- (b) Roxton Lake located within La Haute-Yamaska Regional County Municipality, Quebec; or
- (c) Lake 3 as defined in the information concerning the substance provided on January 3, 2020, to the Minister of the Environment by Phoslock in accordance with subsection 81(1) of the Act and located within Les Laurentides Regional County Municipality, Quebec.
- “Phoslock” means Phoslock Environmental Technologies and Phoslock Canada Inc.
- “physical remediation” means the use of physical techniques to control contaminants in a lake, including but not limited to aeration and dredging remediation techniques.
- “substance” means bentonite, lanthanian, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 302346-65-2.
2. Phoslock may import the substance subject to the following ministerial conditions.
Restrictions
3. Phoslock shall ensure that the substance is used only as a phosphorous binder in a lake and only when the following conditions are met:
- (a) no person uses the lake as a source of drinking water;
- (b) over the period of 12 hours following a discharge of the substance, the weather forecast for the location of the lake indicates a likelihood of precipitation equal to or lower than 40%;
- (c) the total quantity of substance discharged in the lake does not exceed the quantity determined by the following equation:
- Q ≤ 0.000143 × V × e 0.3842 × pH
- where
- pH is the pH measured in accordance with section 4,
- Q is the quantity of substance, expressed in kilograms, and
- V is the volume of water in the lake, expressed in cubic metres and determined by Phoslock by calculation, estimate or reference;
- (d) the substance is discharged by authorized personnel;
- (e) the pH of the lake measured in accordance with section 4 is between 8.0 and 9.0;
- (f) the alkalinity of the lake measured in accordance with section 4 is above 70 mg/L of CaCO3;
- (g) the lake was never subjected to chemical remediation; and
- (h) no other chemical or physical remediation technique is used in the lake in conjunction with the substance.
4. (1) Phoslock shall ensure that the pH, alkalinity, dissolved oxygen concentration and total phosphorus concentration of a lake where the substance is discharged are measured once during the period of 90 days that precedes a discharge.
(2) When measuring the pH and dissolved oxygen concentration in accordance with subsection (1), Phoslock shall ensure that, where the height of the water column is the greatest in the lake,
- (a) measurements are taken at a depth of 0.5 m; and
- (b) measurements are taken 1 m above sediments.
(3) When measuring the alkalinity and total phosphorus concentration in accordance with subsection (1), Phoslock shall ensure that, where the height of the water column is the greatest in the lake,
- (a) one water sample is taken at a depth of 0.5 m; and
- (b) one water sample is taken 1 m above sediments.
5. (1) Phoslock shall ensure that, after the 365th day that follows the discharge, the pH and alkalinity of a lake where the substance is discharged is measured each calendar year at least once during the month of April and once during the month of October until the day referred to in paragraph 9(1)(e).
(2) When measuring the pH in accordance with subsection (1), Phoslock shall ensure that, where the height of the water column is the greatest in the lake,
- (a) one measurement is taken at a depth of 0.5 m; and
- (b) one measurement is taken 1 m above sediments.
(3) When measuring the alkalinity in accordance with subsection (1), Phoslock shall ensure that, where the height of the water column is the greatest in the lake,
- (a) one water sample is taken at a depth of 0.5 m; and
- (b) one water sample is taken 1 m above sediments.
6. When measuring the pH and alkalinity in accordance with sections 4 and 5 and the dissolved oxygen concentration and total phosphorus concentration in accordance with section 4, Phoslock must ensure that
- (a) measurements are made and water samples are collected in accordance with sections 1 to 6 of the manual entitled Protocols manual for water quality sampling in Canada, published in 2011 by the Canadian Council of Ministers of the Environment under ISBN 978-1-896997-78-0;
- (b) each measurement is made in triplicate;
- (c) the pH and alkalinity are measured following the methodology described in the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, Test No. 122: Determination of pH, Acidity and Alkalinity, that is current at the time the determination is made, or an equivalent International Organization for Standardization standard methodology;
- (d) the dissolved oxygen concentration is measured following the methodology described in the Washington State Department of Health procedure entitled Standard Operating Procedures for Measuring Dissolved Oxygen, that is current at the time the determination is made, or an equivalent International Organization for Standardization standard methodology;
- (e) the total phosphorus concentration is measured following the methodology for total phosphorus described in the United States Environmental Protection Agency method entitled Method 365.3: Phosphorous, All Forms (Colorimetric, Ascorbic Acid, Two Reagent), that is current at the time the determination is made, or an equivalent International Organization for Standardization standard methodology.
7. When measuring the alkalinity and total phosphorus concentration in accordance with sections 4 and 5, Phoslock must ensure that the measurement is made by a laboratory located in Canada and accredited to the International Organization for Standardization standard entitled ISO/IEC 17025:2017 General requirements for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories standard, as soon as possible after a water sample is taken.
8. (1) Phoslock shall ensure that, at least 30 days before the substance is discharged in a lake,
- (a) a copy of the present ministerial conditions and the following information are communicated in writing to the most senior public servant of the municipality where the lake is located and the Deputy Minister of the provincial or territorial government department responsible for drinking water:
- (i) when discharged in a lake, the substance can release varied amounts of dissolved lanthanum depending on a number of physico-chemical factors,
- (ii) based on toxicological information on a surrogate substance, there is suspicion that dissolved lanthanum originating from the substance discharged in a lake may have the potential to cause developmental neurotoxicity effects in humans through exposure in recreational waters, e.g. incidental water ingestion via swimming,
- (iii) when the substance is discharged in a lake, direct consumption of the lake water must be avoided;
- (iv) based on the substance certification to the National Sanitation Foundation-American National Standards Institute (NSF-ANSI) Standard 60, the single product allowable concentration of dissolved lanthanum in drinking water is 0.008 micrograms per litre,
- (v) there is suspicion that, once the substance is discharged in the lake, further chemical or physical remediation techniques have the potential to increase the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the lake,
- (vi) it is recommended that, prior to physical remediation of a lake any time after a discharge of the substance in this lake, owners or residents of a property adjacent to the lake be informed of the risks of the physical remediation, and
- (vii) it is recommended that, following physical remediation of a lake any time after a discharge of the substance in this lake, dissolved lanthanum is monitored;
- (b) the following information is communicated in writing to every owner or resident of a lakefront property on the lake where the substance is discharged:
- (i) the date or dates of discharge,
- (ii) the fact that after discharge and until the notice referred to in subsection (2) is communicated, swimming in the lake or the conduct of any activity in or on the lake may pose a risk to human health and must be avoided,
- (iii) the fact that after discharge and until the notice referred to in subsection (2) is communicated, consuming fish caught in the lake may pose a risk to human health and must be avoided, and
- (iv) the fact that, any time after discharge, using the lake as a source of drinking water for direct consumption may pose a risk to human health and must be avoided; and
- (c) signs are installed at every location where the public has access to the lake, including on any beach or wharf, containing the information referred to in subparagraphs (b)(i) to (iv).
(2) The signs referred to in paragraph (1)(c) may be removed and the owners or residents of a property adjacent to the lake may be notified that activities in or on the lake may resume only if the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the lake is measured in accordance with section 9 at a concentration of 13 micrograms per litre or less in at least five consecutive water samples taken over a minimum period of five weeks at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(a) and in at least five consecutive water samples taken over a minimum period of five weeks at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(b).
(3) When signs are removed in accordance with subsection (2) and the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the lake is later measured in accordance with section 9 at a concentration greater than 13 micrograms per litre, Phoslock shall ensure that
- (a) the information referred to in subparagraphs (1)(b)(ii)to (iv) is communicated to every owner or resident of a property adjacent to the lake with explanations, including the date on which the concentration of lanthanum in the lake was measured at a concentration greater than 13 micrograms per litre; and
- (b) the signs are reinstalled in accordance with paragraph (1)(c).
(4) The signs referred to in paragraph (3)(b) may be removed and the owners or residents of a lakefront property on the lake referred to in paragraph 3(a) may be notified that activities in or on the lake may resume only if the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the lake is measured in accordance with section 9 at a concentration of 13 micrograms per litre or less in at least five consecutive water samples taken over a minimum period of five weeks at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(a) and in at least five consecutive water samples taken over a minimum period of five weeks at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(b).
9. (1) Phoslock shall ensure that, following a discharge, the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the lake where the substance is discharged is measured according to the following frequency:
- (a) during the period of 30 days that follows the discharge, at least once for every period of 7 days;
- (b) during the period beginning on the 31st day that follows the discharge and ending on the 90th day that follows the discharge, at least once for every period of 14 days;
- (c) during the period beginning on the 91st day that follows the discharge and ending on the 365th day that follows the discharge, at least once for every period of 30 days;
- (d) at least once during the month of April and once during the month of October until the day referred to in paragraph (e);
- (e) for the purpose of paragraph (d) and subsection 5(1), the day is the latest of
- (i) the last day of a period of 3 years after the day on which the substance is last discharged in the lake, and
- (ii) the day on which the concentration of dissolved lanthanum is measured at 8 micrograms per litre or less in at least two consecutive water samples taken at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(a), one during the month of April and one during the month of October; and in at least two consecutive water samples taken at the location referred to in paragraph 9(2)(b), one during the month of April and one during the month of October;
- (f) despite paragraphs (a) to (c), during the months of December to March inclusively, Phoslock is not required to ensure that the concentration of dissolved lanthanum is measured in the lake when the ice through which a water sample would be collected does not have the required thickness to support the weight of one person as listed on page 5-17 of the manual entitled Northern waters: a guide to designing and conducting water quality monitoring in northern Canada, published in March 2005 by the Northern Ecological Monitoring and Assessment Network.
(2) Phoslock shall ensure that, when measuring the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in accordance with subsection (1), water samples are taken as follows:
- (a) within a distance of 100 m from the largest lake outlet, 1 water sample is taken at a depth of 0.5 m; and
- (b) where the height of the water column is the greatest, 1 water sample is taken 1 m above sediments.
(3) When measuring the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in accordance with subsection (1), Phoslock must ensure that
- (a) water samples are collected in accordance with sections 1 to 6 of the manual entitled Protocols manual for water quality sampling in Canada, published in 2011 by the Canadian Council of Ministers of the Environment under ISBN 978-1-896997-78-0;
- (b) immediately after it is collected, the water samples are filtered with a filter of 0.2 micrometres;
- (c) each water sample is stored in a clean plastic container that is filled to maximum capacity and has a tightly closed screw-top lid; and
- (d) the concentration is measured in triplicate for each water sample.
10. When measuring the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in accordance with section 9, Phoslock must ensure that the measurement is made by a laboratory located in Canada and accredited to the International Organization for Standardization standard entitled ISO/IEC 17025:2017 General requirements for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories standard using inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry, as soon as possible after the water sample is taken.
Submission requirements
11. Phoslock shall communicate to the Minister of the Environment the following information within 30 days after the day on which the substance is discharged in accordance with section 3:
- (a) the name of the lake where the substance is discharged;
- (b) the date or dates on which the substance is discharged;
- (c) the total quantity of substance discharged, expressed in kilograms with an accuracy of 1 kg;
- (d) a description of the method of discharge (surface discharge, deep injection specifying the depth of injection, or other), and physical state of the substance when discharged (powder, slurry, or other);
- (e) the weather forecast for the location of the lake where the substance is discharged for the period of 12 hours following a discharge;
- (f) the volume of water in the lake, on the date of discharge, expressed in cubic metres, and the calculation or source reference used to determine this volume;
- (g) the pH measured in accordance with section 4, including raw data and expressed with a minimum accuracy of ± 0.1 unit;
- (h) the alkalinity measured in accordance with section 4, including raw data and expressed in milligrams of CaCO3 per litre of water with an accuracy of 0.1 milligrams per litre;
- (i) the dissolved oxygen concentration measured in accordance with section 4, including raw data and expressed in milligrams per litre with an accuracy of 0.1 milligrams per litre;
- (j) the total phosphorus concentration measured in accordance with section 4, including raw data and expressed in milligrams per litre with an accuracy of 0.1 milligrams per litre;
- (k) the date and time at which a water sample is taken for alkalinity, or total phosphorus concentration;
- (l) the date and time at which the pH, alkalinity, dissolved oxygen concentration or total phosphorus concentration are measured;
- (m) the latitude and longitude where the pH or dissolved oxygen concentration is measured, expressed in decimal degrees to five decimal places;
- (n) the latitude and longitude where a water sample is taken for alkalinity or total phosphorus concentration, expressed in decimal degrees to five decimal places;
- (o) the identity of the person who measures the pH and dissolved oxygen concentration in accordance with section 4;
- (p) the identity of the person who takes a water sample in accordance with section 4;
- (q) the identity and accreditation of the laboratory that determines the alkalinity or total phosphorus concentration;
- (r) a description of the analytical method used to measure the pH, alkalinity, dissolved oxygen concentration and total phosphorus concentration, including the following:
- (i) the name of the person that manufactured the instrument and the model name of the instrument,
- (ii) the date the equipment was calibrated and the method of calibrating the equipment,
- (iii) the detection limit, and
- (iv) the limit of quantification;
- (s) all information is communicated to the most senior public servant of the municipality and the Deputy Minister of the provincial or territorial government department responsible for drinking water in accordance with paragraph 8(1)(a); and
- (t) all information, including the information on warning signs referred to in paragraph 8(1)(c), is communicated to owners or residents of a property adjacent to the lake or to the public in relation to the discharge of the substance.
12. Phoslock shall communicate to the Minister of the Environment the following information within 60 days after the day on which the pH is measured or a water sample is taken to measure the alkalinity of a lake in accordance with section 5:
- (a) the name of the lake where the substance is discharged;
- (b) the date or dates on which the substance is discharged;
- (c) the pH measured in accordance with section 5, including raw data and expressed with a minimum accuracy of ± 0.1 unit;
- (d) the alkalinity measured in accordance with section 5, including raw data and expressed in milligrams of CaCO3 per litre of water with an accuracy of 0.1 milligrams per litre;
- (e) the date and time at which a water sample is taken for alkalinity;
- (f) the date and time at which the pH and alkalinity are measured;
- (g) the latitude and longitude where the pH is measured, expressed in decimal degrees to five decimal places;
- (h) the latitude and longitude where a water sample is taken for alkalinity, expressed in decimal degrees to five decimal places;
- (i) the depth at which the pH is measured;
- (j) the depth at which the water sample is taken;
- (k) the identity of the person who measures the pH in accordance with section 5;
- (l) the identity of the person who takes a water sample in accordance with section 5;
- (m) the identity and accreditation of the laboratory that determines the alkalinity;
- (n) a description of the analytical method used to measure the pH and alkalinity, including the following:
- (i) the name of the person that manufactured the instrument and the model name of the instrument,
- (ii) the date the equipment was calibrated and the method of calibrating the equipment,
- (iii) the detection limit, and
- (iv) the limit of quantification.
13. Phoslock shall communicate to the Minister of the Environment the following information within 60 days after the day on which a water sample is taken to measure the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in accordance with section 9:
- (a) the name of the lake where the substance is discharged;
- (b) the date on which the substance is discharged;
- (c) a statement as to whether or not there has been precipitation on the lake during the period of 12 hours that preceded the sample collection;
- (d) the date on which the water sample is taken;
- (e) the date on which the water sample is filtered;
- (f) the date on which the water sample is analyzed using inductively coupled plasma-mass spectrometry;
- (g) the latitude and longitude where the water sample is taken, expressed in decimal degrees to five decimal places;
- (h) the depth at which the sample is taken;
- (i) the identity of the person who takes and filters a water sample in accordance with section 9;
- (j) the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the sample, including raw data measured in triplicate for each sample;
- (k) the identity and accreditation of the laboratory that determined the concentration of dissolved lanthanum in the sample; and
- (l) a description of the analytical method used to measure the concentration, including the following:
- (i) the sample preparation method,
- (ii) the name of the person that manufactured the instrument and the model name of the instrument,
- (iii) the date the instrument was calibrated and the calibration method used,
- (iv) the detection limit for lanthanum of the instrument, and
- (v) the limit of quantification for lanthanum for the instrument.
Other requirements
14. (1) Phoslock shall, prior to transferring the physical possession or control of the substance to any person:
- (a) inform the person to whom they transfer the physical possession or control of the substance, in writing, of the terms of the present ministerial conditions; and
- (b) obtain a written confirmation from the person that
- (i) they were informed of the terms of the present ministerial conditions;
- (ii) they will comply with sections 3 to 10 of the present ministerial conditions; and
- (iii) they will communicate the information referred to in sections 11 to 13 to Phoslock within the delays referred to in these sections.
(2) Phoslock shall communicate the information referred to in subparagraph (1)b)(iii) to the Minister of the Environment within 30 days after the day on which it is received from the person.
Record-keeping requirements
15. (1) Phoslock shall ensure that the following electronic or paper records are maintained, with any documentation supporting the validity of the information contained in these records, indicating
- (a) all information, including the notice referred to in subsection 8(2), communicated to owners or residents of a property adjacent to the lake or to the public in relation to the discharge of the substance;
- (b) the information referred to in sections 11 to 13;
- (c) the name and address of each person to whom Phoslock transfers the physical possession or control of the substance for use in a lake; and
- (d) the written confirmation referred to in paragraph 14(b).
(2) Phoslock shall maintain the electronic or paper records referred to in subsection (1) at its principal place of business in Canada, or at the principal place of business in Canada of its representative, for a period of at least five years after they are made.
Coming into force
2. The present Ministerial condition No. 20267a (variation to Ministerial Condition No. 20267) comes into force on September 30, 2020.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Notice with respect to perfluorohexane sulfonic acid, its salts and its precursors (PFHxS)
Pursuant to paragraph 71(1)(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (hereinafter referred to as the “Act”), notice is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment requires, for the purpose of assessing whether to control or the manner in which to control the substances described in Schedule 1 to this notice, any person described in section 2 of this notice who possesses or who may reasonably be expected to have access to the information required in sections 5 to 10 of this notice to provide that information no later than November 20, 2020.
Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment, using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.
Pursuant to section 313 of the Act, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit, with the information, a written request that the information or part of it be treated as confidential. Claims for confidentiality should only be made when the submitted information is confidential under Canadian law and the Act. The Approach to disclose confidential information and promote transparency in chemicals management is available on the Environment and Climate Change Canada website.
Pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act, the Minister of the Environment may, on request in writing from any person to whom this notice applies, extend the time or times within which the person shall comply with this notice. The person seeking such extension shall submit, prior to the deadline, a request to the Minister of the Environment at the following email address: eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca.
Gwen Goodier
Director General
Industrial Sectors and Chemicals Directorate
Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
Definitions
1. The definitions in this section apply in this notice.
- “manufactured item” means an item that is formed into a specific physical shape or design during manufacture and has, for its final use, a function or functions dependent in whole or in part on its shape or design.
- “mixture” means a combination of substances that does not produce a substance that is different from the substances that were combined, including a prepared formulation, hydrate, and reaction mixture that are characterized in terms of their constituents.
- “substance” means any substance listed in Schedule 1 to this notice.
Persons required to provide information
2. This notice applies to any person who, during the 2019 calendar year,
- (a) manufactured a total quantity greater than 1 000 g of any substance;
- (b) imported a total quantity greater than 10 g of any substance, whether the substance was alone or at a concentration equal to or above 1 ppm in a mixture, in a product or in a manufactured item;
- (c) used a total quantity greater than 10 g of any substance, whether the substance was alone or at a concentration equal to or above 1 ppm in a mixture or in a product, in the manufacture of a mixture, a product or a manufactured item; and
- (d) exported a total quantity greater than 10 g of any substance, whether the substance was alone or at a concentration equal to or above 1 ppm in a mixture, in a product or in a manufactured item.
3. This notice also applies to any person or class of persons who is the successor or assign of the persons identified in section 2.
Exclusions
4. This notice does not apply to a substance, whether alone, in a mixture, in a product or in a manufactured item that
- (a) is imported or exported for use in a laboratory for analysis, in scientific research or as a laboratory standard;
- (b) is, or is contained in, a hazardous waste or hazardous recyclable material within the meaning of the Export and Import of Hazardous Waste and Hazardous Recyclable Material Regulations and was exported or imported pursuant to a permit issued under these Regulations; and
- (c) is, or is contained in, a pest control product registered under the Pest Control Products Act.
Information required
5. If the person subject to the notice owns more than one facility, a single response to the notice shall be submitted. The response shall amalgamate the information from all facilities.
6. If the person subject to the notice provides a response that is an amalgamation of information, the person shall provide the name and physical address of each facility.
7. Any persons to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information:
- (a) the name of the person;
- (b) the address;
- (c) the federal business numberfootnote 1;
- (d) the name of an individual authorized to act on behalf of the person, email and phone number; and
- (e) a declaration that the information is accurate and complete.
8. (1) For each substance that a person manufactured or imported, whether alone, in a mixture, in a product or in a manufactured item, during the 2019 calendar year, for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person shall provide the following information:
- (a) the CAS RNfootnote 2 of the substance;
- (b) whether the person manufactured or imported the substance by indicating “yes” or “no”;
- (c) the total quantity of the substance that the person manufactured or imported, reported in grams;
- (d) each substance function code set out in Schedule 2 that applies to the substance;
- (e) each application code set out in Schedule 3 that applies to the substance; and
- (f) for each application code provided, the description and the common or generic name of the known or anticipated final goods containing the substance.
(2) Where code U999 is provided pursuant to paragraph 8(1)(d), a written description of the function associated with the substance must be provided.
(3) Where code C999 is provided pursuant to paragraph 8(1)(e), a written description of the application associated with the substance must be provided.
9. (1) For each substance that a person used, whether alone, in a mixture or in a product, in the manufacture of a mixture, a product or a manufactured item, during the 2019 calendar year, for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person shall provide the following information:
- (a) the CAS RN of the substance;
- (b) whether the person used the substance by indicating “yes” or “no”;
- (c) the total quantity of the substance that the person used, reported in grams;
- (d) each substance function code set out in Schedule 2 that applies to the substance;
- (e) each application code set out in Schedule 3 that applies to the substance; and
- (f) for each application code provided, the description and the common or generic name of the known or anticipated final goods containing the substance.
(2) Where code U999 is provided pursuant to paragraph 9(1)(d), a written description of the function associated with the substance must be provided.
(3) Where code C999 is provided pursuant to paragraph 9(1)(e), a written description of the application associated with the substance must be provided.
10. For each substance that a person exported, whether alone, in a mixture, in a product or in a manufactured item, during the 2019 calendar year, for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person shall provide the following information:
- (a) the CAS RN of the substance;
- (b) whether the person exported the substance by indicating “yes” or “no”; and
- (c) the total quantity of the substance that the person exported, reported in grams.
SCHEDULE 1
CAS RN | Name of the Substance |
---|---|
Perfluorohexane-1-sulphonic acid | |
Perfluorohexanesulphonyl fluoride | |
2-Propenoic acid, 2-[ethyl[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]ethyl ester | |
1-Hexanesulfonic acid, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-, potassium salt | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, N-ethyl-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-N-(2-hydroxyethyl)- | |
1-Propanaminium, 3-[(carboxymethyl)[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-N,N,N-trimethyl-, inner salt | |
1-Propanaminium, N-(2-hydroxyethyl)-N,N-dimethyl-3-[(3-sulfopropyl)[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-, hydroxide, inner salt | |
1-Propanesulfonic acid, 3-[[3-(dimethylamino)propyl][(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]- | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, N-[3-(dimethylamino)propyl]-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro- | |
1-Propanaminium, N,N,N-trimethyl-3-[[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-, chloride | |
1-Hexanesulfonic acid, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-, lithium salt (1:1) | |
Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α-[2-[ethyl[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]ethyl]-ω-hydroxy- | |
1-Propanaminium, N-(2-carboxyethyl)-N,N-dimethyl-3-[methyl[(3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,7,7,8,8,8-tridecafluorooctyl)sulfonyl]amino]-, hydroxide, inner salt | |
Glycine, N-ethyl-N-[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]-, potassium salt | |
2-Propenoic acid, 2-[methyl[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]ethyl ester | |
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-[methyl[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]ethyl ester | |
2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-[ethyl[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]ethyl ester | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, N,N′-[phosphinicobis(oxy-2,1-ethanediyl)]bis[N-ethyl-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro- | |
2-Propenoic acid, 4-[methyl[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]butyl ester | |
1-Hexanesulfonic acid, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-, ammonium salt | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-N-methyl- | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-N-(phenylmethyl)- | |
Glycine, N-ethyl-N-[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]-, sodium salt (1:1) | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-N-(2-hydroxyethyl)-N-methyl- | |
Benzoic acid, 2,3,4,5-tetrachloro-6-[[[3-[[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]oxy]phenyl]amino]carbonyl]-, monopotassium salt | |
Chromium, diaquatetrachloro[µ-[N-ethyl-N-[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]glycinato-O1:O1′]]-µ-hydroxybis(2-propanol)di- | |
Glycine, N-ethyl-N-[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]- | |
1-Propanaminium, N,N,N-trimethyl-3-[[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-, iodide | |
1-Hexanesulfonamide, N-[3-(dimethylamino)propyl]-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-, monohydrochloride | |
1-Hexanesulfonic acid, 1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluoro-, compd. with 2,2′ -iminobis[ethanol] (1:1) | |
1-Propanesulfonic acid, 3-[[3-(dimethylamino)propyl][(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-2-hydroxy-, sodium salt (1:1) | |
Sodium, 3-[methyl[3-[[(tridecafluorohexyl)sulphonyl]amino]propyl] amino]propanesulphonate | |
1-Propanaminium, N-(2-hydroxyethyl)-3-[(2-hydroxy-3-sulfopropyl)[(1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,5,5,6,6,6-tridecafluorohexyl)sulfonyl]amino]-N,N-dimethyl-, hydroxide, sodium salt (1:1:1) |
SCHEDULE 2
Substance function codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
U001 | Abrasives | Substances used to wear down or polish surfaces by rubbing against the surface. |
U002 | Adhesives and sealant substances | Substances used to promote bonding between other substances, promote adhesion of surfaces, or prevent seepage of moisture or air. |
U003 | Adsorbents and absorbents | Substances used to retain other substances by accumulation on their surface or by assimilation. |
U004 | Agricultural substances (non-pesticidal) | Substances used to increase the productivity and quality of farm crops. |
U005 | Anti-adhesive agents | Substances used to prevent bonding between other substances by discouraging surface attachment. |
U006 | Bleaching agents | Substances used to lighten or whiten a substrate through chemical reaction, usually an oxidative process which degrades the colour system. |
U007 | Corrosion inhibitors and anti-scaling agents | Substances used to prevent or retard corrosion or the formation of scale. |
U008 | Dyes | Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by penetrating into the surface of the substrate. |
U009 | Fillers | Substances used to provide bulk, increase strength, increase hardness, or improve resistance to impact. |
U010 | Finishing agents | Substances used to impart such functions as softening, static-proofing, wrinkle resistance, and water repellence. |
U011 | Flame retardants | Substances used on the surface of or incorporated into combustible materials to reduce or eliminate their tendency to ignite when exposed to heat or a flame. |
U012 | Fuels and fuel additives | Substances used to create mechanical or thermal energy through chemical reactions, or which are added to a fuel for the purpose of controlling the rate of reaction or limiting the production of undesirable combustion products, or which provide other benefits such as corrosion inhibition, lubrication, or detergency. |
U013 | Functional fluids (closed systems) | Liquid or gaseous substances used for one or more operational properties in a closed system. This code does not include fluids used as lubricants. |
U014 | Functional fluids (open systems) | Liquid or gaseous substances used for one or more operational properties in an open system. |
U015 | Intermediates | Substances consumed in a reaction to produce other substances for commercial advantage. |
U016 | Ion exchange agents | Substances that are used to selectively remove targeted ions from a solution. This code also includes aluminosilicate zeolites. |
U017 | Lubricants and lubricant additives | Substances used to reduce friction, heat, or wear between moving parts or adjacent solid surfaces, or that enhance the lubricity of other substances. |
U018 | Odour agents | Substances used to control odours, remove odours, mask odours, or impart odours. |
U019 | Oxidizing and reducing agents | Substances used to alter the valence state of another substance by donating or accepting electrons or by the addition or removal of hydrogen to a substance. |
U020 | Photosensitive substances | Substances used for their ability to alter their physical or chemical structure through absorption of light, resulting in the emission of light, dissociation, discolouration, or other chemical reactions. |
U021 | Pigments | Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by attaching themselves to the surface of the substrate through binding or adhesion. |
U022 | Plasticizers | Substances used in plastics, cement, concrete, wallboard, clay bodies, or other materials to increase their plasticity or fluidity. |
U023 | Plating agents and surface treating agents | Substances applied to metal, plastic, or other surfaces to alter physical or chemical properties of the surface. |
U024 | Process regulators | Substances used to change the rate of a reaction, start or stop the reaction, or otherwise influence the course of the reaction. |
U025 | Processing aids, specific to petroleum production | Substances added to water, oil, or synthetic drilling muds or other petroleum production fluids to control foaming, corrosion, alkalinity and pH, microbiological growth or hydrate formation, or to improve the operation of processing equipment during the production of oil, gas, and other products or mixtures from beneath the earth’s surface. |
U026 | Processing aids, not otherwise covered in this table | Substances used in applications other than the production of oil, gas, or geothermal energy to control foaming, corrosion or alkalinity and pH, or to improve the operation of processing equipment. |
U027 | Propellants and blowing agents | Substances used to dissolve or suspend other substances and either to expel those substances from a container in the form of an aerosol or to impart a cellular structure to plastics, rubber, or thermoset resins. |
U028 | Solids separation agents | Substances used to promote the separation of suspended solids from a liquid. |
U029 | Solvents (for cleaning or degreasing) | Substances used to dissolve oils, greases and similar materials from textiles, glassware, metal surfaces, and other articles. |
U030 | Solvents (which become part of formulation or mixture) | Substances used to dissolve another substance to form a uniformly dispersed solution at the molecular level. |
U031 | Surface active agents | Substances used to modify surface tension when dissolved in water or water solutions, or reduce interfacial tension between two liquids or between a liquid and a solid or between liquid and air. |
U032 | Viscosity adjustors | Substances used to alter the viscosity of another substance. |
U033 | Laboratory substances | Substances used in a laboratory for chemical analysis, chemical synthesis, extracting and purifying other chemicals, dissolving other substances, and similar activities. |
U034 | Paint additives and coating additives not otherwise covered in this table | Substances used in a paint or coating formulation to enhance properties such as water repellence, increased gloss, improved fade resistance, ease of application or foam prevention. |
U061 | Pest control substances | Substances used as active ingredients in products, mixtures or manufactured items used for directly or indirectly controlling, destroying, attracting or repelling a pest or for mitigating or preventing its injurious, noxious or troublesome effects. |
U062 | Active ingredients in health products and drugs | Substances used as active ingredients in natural health products or prescription or non-prescription drugs. |
U063 | Flavourants | Substances used as non-medicinal ingredients or excipients in foods, natural health products, and drugs that impart a certain flavour to the food, natural health product or drug. |
U064 | Contaminants | Substances naturally present in a reactant or a substance that are produced as a result of the manufacturing process and have no beneficial properties in the final product, mixture or manufactured item. |
U065 | By-products | Substances resulting from the manufacturing process, which can be partially or completely removed from the intended product, mixture or manufactured item and have commercial value on their own or when added to another product, mixture or manufactured item. |
U066 | Wastes | Substances that are removed from the final product, mixture or manufactured item during the manufacturing process and have no commercial value. |
U999 | Other (specify) | Substances with a function not otherwise described in this table. A written description must be provided when using this code. |
SCHEDULE 3
Application codes
PART 1
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C101 | Floor coverings | Substances contained in floor coverings. This code does not include wood and pressed wood flooring products included in Building or construction materials — Wood and engineered wood code. |
C102 | Foam seating and bedding | Substances contained in foam mattresses, pillows, cushions, and any seating, furniture and furnishings containing foam. |
C103 | Furniture and furnishings not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in furniture and furnishings made from metal, wood, leather, plastic or other materials. This code does not include foam seating and bedding products. |
C104 | Fabric, textile and leather articles not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in fabric, textile and leather products to impart colour and other desirable properties such as water, soil, stain repellence, wrinkle resistance, or flame resistance. |
C105 | Cleaning and furnishing care | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used to remove dirt, grease, stains, and foreign matter from furniture and furnishings, or to cleanse, sanitize, bleach, scour, polish, protect, or improve the appearance of surfaces. |
C106 | Laundry and dishwashing | Substances contained in laundry and dishwashing products, mixtures or manufactured items. |
C107 | Water treatment | Substances contained in water treatment products, mixtures or manufactured items that are designed to disinfect, reduce contaminants or other undesirable constituents, and condition or improve aesthetics of water. Excludes any substance contained in pest control products as defined under the Pest Control Products Act. |
C108 | Personal care and cosmetics | Substances contained in personal care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used for cleansing, grooming, improving or altering skin, hair, or teeth. |
C109 | Air care | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used to odorize or deodorize indoor air in homes, offices, motor vehicles, and other enclosed spaces. |
C110 | Apparel and footwear care | Substances contained in apparel and footwear care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are applied post-market. |
C160 | Pet care | Substances contained in pet care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used for cleansing, grooming, improving or altering skin, hair or teeth and intended for animal use. |
PART 2
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C201 | Adhesives and sealants | Substances contained in adhesive or sealant products or mixtures used to fasten other materials together or prevent the passage of liquid or gas. |
Paints and coatings | Substances contained in paints or coatings. | |
Paint thinners and removers | Substances contained in paint thinners and removers. | |
C203 | Building or construction materials — Wood and engineered wood |
Substances contained in building and construction materials made of wood and pressed or engineered wood products, mixtures or manufactured items. Excludes any substance contained in pest control products as defined under the Pest Control Products Act. |
C204 | Building or construction materials not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in building and construction materials not otherwise covered in this table. |
C205 | Electrical and electronics | Substances contained in electrical and electronic products, mixtures or manufactured items. |
C206 | Metal materials not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in metal products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table. |
C207 | Batteries | Substances contained in non-rechargeable and rechargeable batteries including dry and wet cell units that store energy. |
PART 3
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C301 | Food packaging | Substances contained in single or multi-layered packaging consisting of paper, plastic, metal, foil or other materials which have or may have direct contact with food. |
C302 | Paper products, mixtures or manufactured items | Substances contained in paper products, mixtures or manufactured items. |
Plastic materials not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in plastic products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table. | |
Rubber materials not otherwise covered in this table | Substances contained in rubber products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table. | |
C304 | Toys, playground and sporting equipment | Substances contained in toys, playground, and sporting equipment made of wood, metal, plastic or fabric. |
C305 | Arts, crafts and hobby materials | Substances contained in arts, crafts, and hobby materials. |
C306 | Ink, toner and colourants | Substances contained in ink, toners and colourants used for writing, printing, creating an image on paper; and substances contained in other substrates, or applied to substrates to change their colour or hide images. |
C307 | Photographic supplies, film and photo-chemicals |
Substances contained in photographic supplies, film, photo-processing substances, and photographic paper. |
PART 4
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C401 | Automotive care | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items used in automotive cleaning and care of exterior and interior vehicle surfaces. This code does not include antifreeze, de-icing products, or lubricants. |
C402 | Lubricants and greases | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items to reduce friction, heat generation and wear between solid surfaces. |
C403 | Antifreeze and de-icing | Substances added to fluids to reduce the freezing point of the mixture, or substances applied to surfaces to melt or prevent build-up of ice. |
C404 | Fuels and related products, mixtures or manufactured items | Substances burned to produce heat, light or power, or added to inhibit corrosion, provide lubrication, increase efficiency of use, or decrease production of undesirable by-products. |
C405 | Explosive materials | Substances capable of producing a sudden expansion, usually accompanied by the production of heat and large changes in pressure upon ignition. |
C406 | Agricultural products, mixtures or manufactured items (non-pesticidal) | Substances used to increase the productivity and quality of plants, animals or forestry crops, produced on a commercial scale. Includes animal feed (any substance or mixture of substances for consumption by livestock, for providing the nutritional requirements of livestock, or for the purpose of preventing or correcting nutritional disorders of livestock, as defined in the Feeds Act and its regulations). |
C407 | Lawn and garden care | Substances contained in lawn, garden, outdoor or potted plant and tree care products, mixtures or manufactured items. Excludes any substance contained in pest control products as defined under the Pest Control Products Act. |
C461 | Pest control | Substances contained in any product, mixture or manufactured item for directly or indirectly controlling, preventing, destroying, mitigating, attracting, or repelling any pest. |
C462 | Automotive, aircraft and transportation | Substances contained in automobiles, aircraft and other types of transportation, or used in their manufacture. |
C463 | Oil and natural gas extraction | Substances that are, or are contained in, any mixtures, products or manufactured items, used for oil and natural gas drilling, extraction and processing. |
PART 5
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C562 | Food and beverage | Substances contained in food and beverage products, mixtures or manufactured items. |
C563 | Drugs | Substances contained in prescription and non-prescription drugs intended for humans or animals. |
C564 | Natural health | Substances contained in natural health products, mixtures or manufactured items intended for humans or animals. |
C565 | Medical devices | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items used for either the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention of a disease, disorder, or an abnormal physical state; or those used in restoring, correcting or modifying organic functions in humans or animals. |
C566 | Tobacco products, mixtures or manufactured items | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items composed in whole or in part of tobacco, including tobacco leaves and any extract of tobacco leaves. |
PART 6
Application codes | Title | Description |
---|---|---|
C999 | Other (specify) | Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are not described within any other application code. A written description must be provided when using this code. |
EXPLANATORY NOTE
(This note is not part of the notice.)
This notice requests information on perfluorohexane sulfonic acid, its salts and its precursors (PFHxS) for the purposes of assessing whether to control or the manner in which to control the risks posed by these substances. PFHxS, which are found in the Canadian environment, have been assessed internationally as persistent organic pollutants under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. In October of 2019, the technical expert committee responsible for reviewing chemicals under the Convention decided to recommend PFHxS for listing in Annex A, for elimination, without exemptions for production or use. The listing of PFHxS will be considered by the Conference of the Parties, the governing body of the Stockholm Convention, at its next meeting in July 2021.
The information gathered on PFHxS will comprise commercial quantities and use patterns, including mixtures, products and manufactured items containing these substances, in order to identify the state of PFHxS in Canadian commerce. The information will ensure that future decision-making is based on the best available information, and that the appropriate technical and economic factors are considered in Canada’s negotiating position on the listing of PFHxS to the Stockholm Convention.
Pursuant to subsection 71(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (hereinafter referred to as the “Act’’), every person to whom this notice applies shall comply with this notice within the time specified in the notice. Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment, no later than November 20, 2020, using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window. Inquiries concerning the notice may be directed to the Substances Management Information Line at 1‑800‑567‑1999 (toll-free in Canada), 819‑938‑3232 (outside of Canada) or eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca.
Pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act, the Minister of the Environment may, on request in writing from any person to whom this notice applies, extend the time or times within which the person shall comply with this notice. The person seeking such extension shall submit, prior to the deadline, a request to the Minister of the Environment at the following email address: eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca.
Any person not subject to this notice, who has an interest in a substance, may identify themselves by completing a voluntary Declaration of Stakeholder Interest.
Persons who do not meet the requirements of the notice and have no interest in the substances may submit a Declaration of Non-Engagement.
Compliance with the Act is mandatory and specific offences are established by subsection 272.1(1) of the Act. Subsections 272.1(2), (3) and (4) of the Act set the penalties for persons who contravene section 71 of the Act. Offences include the offence of failing to comply with an obligation arising from the present notice and the offence of providing false or misleading information. Penalties include fines, and the amount of the fine can range from a maximum of $25,000 for an individual convicted following summary proceedings to a maximum of $500,000 for a large corporation convicted on indictment. The maximum fines are doubled for second or subsequent offences.
The current text of the Act, including the most recent amendments, is available on the Department of Justice website.
The Act is enforced in accordance with the Compliance and Enforcement Policy for the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999. Suspected violations under the Act can be reported to the Enforcement Branch by email at ec.enviroinfo.ec@canada.ca.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Publication after screening assessment of a substance — urea, N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N’-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)- (triclocarban), CAS RNfootnote 2 101-20-2 — specified on the Domestic Substances List (subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas triclocarban is a substance identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;
Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on triclocarban pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;
And whereas it is proposed to conclude that triclocarban does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,
Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to take no further action on this substance at this time under section 77 of the Act.
Notice is further given that options are being considered for follow-up activities to track changes in exposure to triclocarban.
Public comment period
As specified under subsection 77(5) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.
In accordance with section 313 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit with the information a request that it be treated as confidential.
Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
Greg Carreau
Acting Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health
ANNEX
Summary of the draft screening assessment of triclocarban
Pursuant to section 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of urea, N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N′-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-, hereinafter referred to as triclocarban. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) for triclocarban is 101-20-2. This substance was identified as a priority for assessment as it met the categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA.
According to information submitted in response to surveys under section 71 of CEPA, triclocarban was reported to be imported into Canada in quantities ranging from 10 000 to 100 000 kg and 1 000 to 10 000 kg in 2008 and 2015, respectively, but triclocarban was not reported to be manufactured in Canada above the reporting threshold of 100 kg. Triclocarban was reported to be used in Canada as an antibacterial ingredient in cosmetic and drug products such as bar soaps and facial cleansers.
The ecological risk of triclocarban was characterized using the ecological risk classification (ERC) of organic substances, which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web–derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence, and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. The ERC resulted in an exposure classification of low for triclocarban, based on its reported use patterns, and in a hazard classification of moderate. As this substance is a known antibacterial agent, its hazard classification was reviewed using a broader set of data than considered under the initial ERC analysis. Based on this additional analysis, triclocarban is considered to have a high hazard based on its inherent toxicity in aquatic organisms and high potential for bioaccumulation in aquatic invertebrates and gastropods. However, due to its limited exposure potential, triclocarban is considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.
Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from triclocarban. It is proposed to conclude that triclocarban does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.
The critical health effect identified for triclocarban was reduced absolute and relative organ weight (spleen, kidneys, liver, adrenal, heart, and pituitary) with changes in organ histology in animal studies. Triclocarban exposure also produced effects on fecal microbial diversity, body weight and organ weight in repeat dose studies. Effects on male reproductive tissues, reproduction, live births, reduced rat pup body weight and reduced pup survival were observed in animal studies. Canadians are mainly exposed to triclocarban via cosmetics and drug products. Canadian biomonitoring data indicated that the majority of the population have a low exposure to triclocarban. Margins of exposure were considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.
On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that triclocarban does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.
Proposed conclusion
It is proposed to conclude that triclocarban does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.
Consideration for follow-up
While exposure of the general population and the environment to triclocarban is not of concern at current levels, this substance is associated with effects of concern. Therefore, there may be concern if exposure were to increase. Follow-up activities to track changes in exposure or commercial use patterns are under consideration.
Stakeholders are encouraged to provide, during the 60-day public comment period on the draft screening assessment, any information pertaining to the substance that may help inform the choice of follow-up activity. This could include information on new or planned import, manufacture, or use of the substance, if the information has not previously been submitted to the ministers.
The draft screening assessment for this substance is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Publication of the science assessment of plastic pollution (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas the Government of Canada has conducted a science assessment of plastic pollution pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act;
The executive summary of the science assessment conducted on plastic pollution is annexed hereby.
Jonathan Wilkinson
Minister of the Environment
Patty Hajdu
Minister of Health
ANNEX
Executive summary of the science assessment of plastic pollution
Plastics are among the most universally used materials in modern society. Since the 1950s, the production and use of plastics have been increasing faster than that of any other material, mostly due to their durability and low cost. However, the improper management of plastic waste has led to plastics becoming ubiquitous in all major compartments of the environment. Plastic that is discarded, disposed of, or abandoned in the environment outside of a managed waste stream is considered plastic pollution. Plastic pollution has been detected on shorelines, and in surface waters, sediment, groundwater, soil, indoor and outdoor air, food and drinking water. In Canada, it is estimated that 1% of plastic waste enters the environment. In 2016, this amounted to 29 000 tonnes of plastic pollution. Since plastic degrades very slowly and is persistent in the environment, the amount of plastic pollution is anticipated to continue to increase over time. There are growing concerns that plastic pollution may adversely impact the health of the environment and humans.
The purpose of this report is to summarize the current state of the science regarding the potential impacts of plastic pollution on the environment and human health, as well as to guide future research and inform decision-making on plastic pollution in Canada. It provides a review of the available information on plastic pollution, including its sources, occurrence, and fate, as well as on the potential effects of plastic pollution on the environment and human health. This report is not intended to quantify the risks of plastic pollution on the environment or human health, but rather to survey the existing state of science in order to guide future scientific and regulatory activities.
In an environmental context, plastics are often categorized by their size, with macroplastics being larger than 5 mm and microplastics being less than or equal to 5 mm. Plastic waste can be released into the environment as complete materials (e.g. discarded single-use or short-lived products, such as plastic bags and straws), as large pieces of plastics (e.g. fragments of plastic products) or as microplastics (e.g. microfibres released from washing of clothes or microbeads released through wastewater). Microplastics can also be formed through the breakdown of larger plastic items in the environment.
While plastics can degrade, the rate at which they break down is slow and can be affected by multiple factors, such as temperature and light. In water, the rate of degradation is temperature dependent, being slower in cold water. The lack of exposure to sunlight also slows down the degradation of plastics. While oxidation can promote the degradation of plastics in soil, the rate of degradation is still slow. Although biodegradable, compostable, biobased, and oxo-degradable plastics are increasingly being used as alternatives to conventional plastics, there is a lack of significant evidence that they will fully degrade in natural environments. Further studies would assist in understanding their environmental impact, particularly in comparison to conventional plastics.
Plastic pollution is found in aquatic and terrestrial environments, as well as in indoor and outdoor air, and arises from various sources. For example, plastic may enter the aquatic environment as a result of litter, mismanaged waste, and abandoned, lost or discarded fishing gear, or may be deposited in the terrestrial environment from agricultural activities. In additional, microplastics removed from wastewater settle in sewage sludge and can be released to land through the application of biosolids. Moreover, release of microfibres from wastewater treatment systems is known to represent a source of microplastic pollution. Products available to consumers that are discarded to the environment or not properly managed may also represent a source of plastic pollution. Sources of microplastic pollution to indoor air include the shedding of fibres from clothing, furniture, carpeting and household goods, while microplastics in outdoor air are influenced by various sources, including vehicle tire wear and tear.
In Canada as well as internationally, single-use plastics make up the bulk of macroplastics found on shorelines. The most common litter items collected on Canadian shorelines include cigarette butts, bottle caps, plastic bags, plastic bottles, and straws. Microplastic particles such as fragments and pellets are also found on shorelines where they accumulate within the organic matter along the strandline. Generally, a greater abundance of plastic pollution has been found in areas with high human and industrial activity, notably in the Great Lakes.
Microplastic particles are also found in fresh and marine surface waters. Globally, microfibres are one of the most common types of microplastics found in water. However, it is recognized that there is a lack of standardized, high-quality methods for sampling plastics, particularly for measuring, quantifying and characterizing microplastics.
Microplastics are also found in sediment and soil. Through various mechanisms, such as the formation of biofilms — layers of microorganisms that form on a surface — microplastics in surface waters may eventually sink, leading to the accumulation of microplastics in the sediment of both freshwater and marine environments. Soils are also expected to act as a major sink for plastic particles, as microplastics are likely to remain in soils for long periods due to factors such as vertical transport, which pulls particles down from the surface, slowing their degradation. Currently, only limited evidence is available on the occurrence of microplastics in groundwater, although it has been hypothesized that microplastics may travel from soil into groundwater.
Air is also anticipated to be an important pathway for microplastic transport, and microplastics have been detected in both indoor and outdoor air. While there are no Canadian data available on the occurrence of microplastics in air, limited data from other parts of the world suggest that concentrations may be higher in indoor air than in outdoor air. Indoors, microplastics are also found in settled house dust.
Current data on the occurrence of microplastics in food are limited, and most available information concerns microplastics found in seafood, specifically fish and shellfish from marine environments. In fish, microplastics have been found in both muscle tissue and the gastrointestinal tract, mostly as fragments and fibres. Microplastics have also been detected in mussels, clams, oysters, scallops and snails, and in a very small number of other foods, such as salt.
Internationally, a limited number of studies have investigated the presence of microplastics in tap and bottled water. Of these studies, few are considered reliable due to concerns with quality assurance measures. While the available studies indicate that microplastics have been detected in bottled water samples purchased from outside of Canada, the concentrations do not correlate with bottle type (i.e. plastic, glass or beverage carton) and vary depending on the use conditions (i.e. single-use versus multi-use bottles). The sources of microplastics in bottled water are still unknown and further research is required. In the case of tap water, some studies have detected microplastics while others have not. It is anticipated that drinking water treatment will remove a large proportion of microplastic particles.
Plastic pollution has been shown to impact organisms and their habitats. Macroplastics have been demonstrated to cause physical harm to environmental receptors on an individual level and to have the potential to adversely affect habitat integrity. Physical harm to biota is often a result of entanglement or ingestion. Entanglement can lead to suffocation, strangulation, or smothering, and a high frequency of reported entanglements has led to direct harm or mortality. Ingestion can lead to direct harm through physical damage; it can block airways or intestinal systems leading to suffocation or starvation. An increasing amount of plastic pollution in water bodies may also adversely affect ecosystem function, biodiversity, and habitat integrity. Plastics can act as transport mediums for organisms, microorganisms, or other organic matter, which can alter ecosystem dynamics.
The observed effects of microplastics on biota are primarily driven by physical effects. Published studies on the ecotoxicological effects of microplastics report conflicting observations, even for the same endpoint in the same species. This conflicting information could be addressed by developing and using standard approaches for testing the effects of microplastics on environmental organisms, using environmentally relevant testing materials, and developing an understanding of the impact of shape, size and chemical composition on ecotoxicological effects.
Humans may be exposed to microplastics via the ingestion of food, bottled water, and tap water, as well as through the inhalation of indoor and outdoor air. However, information on the human health effects of microplastics is limited, and further research is required to better inform target tissues, threshold doses, and mode of action. Some associations between exposures to high levels of microplastics and adverse health effects in laboratory animals and in humans have been reported, but these health effects cannot be linked to exposure in the general population. Occupational inhalation exposure studies show associations between work in microplastic-related industries and increased incidence of various respiratory symptoms and diseases. Conflicting observations have been made for cancers of the respiratory tract and digestive system.
Effects observed in animal studies are primarily associated with tissues related to where particles enter the body (e.g. effects on the digestive system after oral exposure and on the respiratory tract after inhalation). Effects following oral exposure include inflammation of the liver, oxidative stress, metabolic changes, and altered gut microbiota. Movement of a small fraction of microplastic particles to lymphatic tissues has also been observed. Although the current scientific literature does not identify a concern for human health, there are insufficient data to allow for a robust evaluation of the potential human health risks of ingested microplastics.
Effects in the respiratory tract are likely related to the physical impact of microplastics as particulate matter and include oxidative stress, cytotoxicity, inflammation, and development of foreign body granulomas. In inhalation studies, movement of a small fraction of microplastic particles to lymphatic or systemic tissues has also been observed. No dose-response relationship has been observed in mortality, survival time, behaviour, clinical observations, or tumour incidence from inhalation exposures.
In addition to physical impacts, there are concerns that plastics may serve as a means of transport for other chemicals. Since plastics can contain unbound monomers and chemical additives and can sorb persistent organic pollutants from the environment, it is possible that these substances may be transported to organisms or humans, where they may then be released. The extent of release is expected to depend on a variety of factors, such as the properties of the receiving environment, the plastic particle, and the bound chemical. The current literature suggests that, while the transport of chemicals via plastics is possible, the impact to biota is likely limited, and recent international reviews indicate that there is likely a low health concern for human exposure to chemicals from ingestion of microplastics from food or drinking water (EFSA 2016, FAO 2017, WHO 2019). Many of the chemicals observed to be bound to plastic particles have been assessed by various programs at Environment and Climate Change Canada and Health Canada.
Plastics can also provide a habitat for microorganisms, including potential pathogens, through the formation of biofilms. There is currently no indication that microplastic-associated biofilms would impact human health. In addition, despite very limited data, it is anticipated that drinking water treatment would inactivate biofilm-associated microorganisms.
In order to advance the understanding of the impacts of plastic pollution on the environment and human health, it is recommended that research be carried out in the following areas to address the key knowledge gaps identified in this report:
- Developing standardized methods for sampling, quantifying, characterizing, and evaluating the effects of macroplastics and microplastics;
- Furthering the understanding of human exposure to microplastics;
- Furthering the understanding of the ecotoxicological effects of microplastics;
- Furthering the understanding of the effects of microplastics on human health; and
- Expanding and developing consistent monitoring efforts to include poorly characterized environmental compartments such as soil.
Given the increasing amounts of plastic pollution in the environment and the demonstrated ability of macroplastics to harm biota, it is anticipated that the frequency of occurrence of physical effects on individual environmental receptors will continue to increase if current trends continue without mitigation measures.
In accordance with the precautionary principle, action is needed to reduce macroplastics and microplastics that end up in the environment.
The science assessment of plastic pollution is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.
DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE
BUSINESS DEVELOPMENT BANK OF CANADA ACT
Business Development Bank of Canada authorized capital
Pursuant to paragraph 23(1)(a) of the Business Development Bank of Canada Act, the Minister of Finance hereby determines that, effective September 30, 2020, the amount of paid-in capital of the Business Development Bank of Canada, together with any contributed surplus relating to it and any proceeds referred to in paragraph 30(2)(d) of the Act that have been prescribed as equity, must not at any time exceed $20,000,000,000.
Greg Reade
Director General
Economic Development and Corporate Finance Branch
On behalf of the Minister of Finance
DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE
EXPORT DEVELOPMENT ACT
Export Development Canada limit of liability for the Canada Account
Pursuant to paragraph 24(1.1)(a) of the Export Development Act, the Minister of Finance hereby gives notice that, effective September 30, 2020, the amount of the total liabilities and obligations referred to in subsection 24(1) shall at no time exceed $115,000,000,000.
Martin Tabi
Director General
International Trade and Finance Branch
On behalf of the Minister of Finance
DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE
TIME LIMITS AND OTHER PERIODS ACT (COVID-19)
Order Respecting Time Limits Under the Special Import Measures Act (COVID-19)
The Minister of Finance, pursuant to subsections 7(1) and (5) of the Time Limits and Other Periods Act (COVID-19)footnote a, makes the annexed Order Respecting Time Limits Under the Special Import Measures Act (COVID-19).
Ottawa, September 30, 2020
Chrystia Freeland
Minister of Finance
Order Respecting Time Limits Under the Special Import Measures Act (COVID-19)
Definition
Definition of Act
1 In this Order, Act means the Special Import Measures Act.
Extension
Extension of time limit
2 (1) A time limit that is established by a provision set out in column 1 of the schedule and that is set out in column 2 is extended by the period set out in column 3 or to December 31, 2020 if that day occurs before the day on which the extended time limit would expire.
Application
(2) An extension under subsection (1) applies to
- (a) the time limits established by subsections 41(1) and 43(1) of the Act, in the case of an investigation initiated under subsection 31(1) of the Act on or before April 1, 2020;
- (b) the time limits established by paragraphs 57(b), 59(1)(e) and 59(3)(a) and (b) of the Act, if the time limit would otherwise expire on or before December 30, 2020; and
- (c) the time limits established by paragraph 76.03(7)(a) and subsection 76.03(10) of the Act, in the case of an expiry review of an order or finding initiated by the Tribunal, as defined in subsection 2(1) of the Act, on or before September 30, 2020.
Coming into Force
March 13, 2020
3 This Order is deemed to have come into force on March 13, 2020.
SCHEDULE
(Subsection 2(1))
Item | Column 1 Provision of the Act |
Column 2 Time Limit |
Column 3 Period of Extension |
---|---|---|---|
1 | subsection 41(1) | 90 days | 165 days |
2 | subsection 43(1) | 120 days | 180 days |
3 | paragraph 57(b) | two years | six months |
4 | paragraph 59(1)(e) | two years | six months |
5 | paragraph 59(3)(a) | one year | six months |
6 | paragraph 59(3)(b) | one year | six months |
7 | paragraph 76.03(7)(a) | 150 days | 180 days |
8 | subsection 76.03(10) | 160 days | 180 days |
DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
DEPARTMENT OF NATIONAL DEFENCE
DEPARTMENT OF FINANCE
DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC WORKS AND GOVERNMENT SERVICES
TIME LIMITS AND OTHER PERIODS ACT (COVID-19)
Order Respecting Time Limits and Other Periods Established by the Garnishment, Attachment and Pension Diversion Act (COVID-19)
The Minister of Justice, the Minister of National Defence, the Minister of Finance and the Minister of Public Works and Government Services, pursuant to subsection 7(1) of the Time Limits and Other Periods Act (COVID-19)footnote a, make the annexed Order Respecting Time Limits and Other Periods Established by the Garnishment, Attachment and Pension Diversion Act (COVID-19).
Ottawa, September 30, 2020
David Lametti
Minister of Justice
Ottawa, September 30, 2020
Harjit Singh Sajjan
Minister of National Defence
Ottawa, September 30, 2020
Chrystia Freeland
Minister of Finance
Ottawa, September 30, 2020
Anita Anand
Minister of Public Works and Government Services
Order Respecting Time Limits and Other Periods Established by the Garnishment, Attachment and Pension Diversion Act (COVID-19)
Extensions — subsection 39(2) of Act
1 The 30-day time limit established by subsection 39(2) of the Garnishment, Attachment and Pension Diversion Act is extended by 30 days or to December 31, 2020, if that day occurs before the day on which the 30-day extension ends, and the further period of 90 days established by that subsection is extended by 180 days or to December 31, 2020, if that day occurs before the day on which the 180-day extension ends.
DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY AND EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS
TIME LIMITS AND OTHER PERIODS ACT (COVID-19)
Order Respecting Time Limits Established by or Under the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Superannuation Act (COVID-19)
The Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness, pursuant to subsections 7(1) and (5) of the Time Limits and Other Periods Act (COVID-19)footnote a, makes the annexed Order Respecting Time Limits Established by or Under the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Superannuation Act (COVID-19).
Ottawa, September 29, 2020
William Sterling Blair
Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Order Respecting Time Limits Established by or Under the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Superannuation Act (COVID-19)
Extension
Extension of time limit
1 A time limit set out in column 2 of a Part of the schedule and established under the provision set out in column 1 is extended by 180 days or to December 31, 2020, if that day occurs before the day on which the 180-day extension ends.
Coming into Force
March 13, 2020
2 This Order is deemed to have come into force on March 13, 2020.
SCHEDULE
(Section 1)
Extended Time Limits
PART 1
Item | Column 1 Provision |
Column 2 Time Limit Being Extended |
---|---|---|
1 | clause 6(b)(ii)(A) | 1 year |
2 | clause 6(b)(ii)(C) | 1 year |
3 | clause 6(b)(ii)(D) | 1 year |
4 | clause 6(b)(ii)(E) | 1 year |
5 | clause 6(b)(ii)(G) | 1 year |
6 | clause 6(b)(ii)(I) | 1 year |
7 | clause 6(b)(ii)(K) | the day on which the contributor ceases to be a member of the Force |
8 | clause 6(b)(ii)(N) | 1 year |
9 | subsection 8(1) | 1 month |
10 | paragraph 9(4)(a) | 1 year |
11 | subsection 18(4) | 3 months |
12 | subsection 24(1) | 1 year |
PART 2
Item | Column 1 Provision |
Column 2 Time Limit Being Extended |
---|---|---|
1 | subsection 9.03(1) | 30 days |
2 | section 9.091 | 30 days |
3 | subsection 9.1(2) | 30 days |
4 | paragraph 10.2(a) | 30 days |
5 | subsection 10.7(1) | 3 months after the day on which the contributor returns to duty |
6 | subsection 10.7(4) | 3 months |
7 | section 11.5 | 1 year after the day on which the advisor sent the corrected information |
8 | subsection 11.9(3) | 1 year after the day on which the contributor most recently became a contributor |
9 | subsection 11.9(3) | 1 month |
10 | paragraph 13(1)(d) | 1 year |
11 | subsection 13(1.2) | 6 months |
12 | subparagraph 15(b)(i) | 30 days |
13 | subparagraph 15(b)(ii) | 3 months |
14 | subparagraph 15(e)(i) | 3 months |
15 | subparagraph 15(e)(ii) | 3 months |
16 | subsection 16(3) | 3 months |
17 | subsection 26.2(1) | 6 months |
18 | subsection 26.2(2) | 6 months |
19 | subsection 26.2(5) | 30 days |
20 | section 34 | 1 year |
21 | subsection 35(2) | 3 months |
22 | section 38 | 1 year |
23 | section 41 | 1 year |
24 | paragraph 46(4)(a) | 3 months |
25 | paragraph 46(4)(b) | 3 months |
26 | section 56 | 1 year |
27 | paragraph 57(1)(b) | 6 months |
28 | subsection 57(4) | 3 months |
29 | paragraph 58(b) | 1 year |
PART 3
Item | Column 1 Provision |
Column 2 Time Limit Being Extended |
---|---|---|
1 | subsection 1(2) | day on which the contributor ceases to be a member of the Force |
2 | subsection 2(3) | 1 month |
3 | subsection 2(5) | 1 year after the day on which the advisor sent the corrected information |
4 | paragraph 2(6)(a) | 1 year after the day on which the advisor sent the corrected information |
5 | paragraph 4(a) | 1 year |
6 | paragraph 4(b) | 1 year |
7 | subsection 9(1) | 30 days |
8 | subsection 16(1) | 6 months |
9 | subsection 16(2) | 6 months |
10 | section 17 | 30 days |
DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY AND EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS
TIME LIMITS AND OTHER PERIODS ACT (COVID-19)
Order Respecting Time Limits Established by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Pension Continuation Regulations (COVID-19)
The Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness, pursuant to subsections 7(2) and (5) of the Time Limits and Other Periods Act (COVID-19)footnote a, makes the annexed Order Respecting Time Limits Established by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Pension Continuation Regulations (COVID-19).
Ottawa, September 29, 2020
William Sterling Blair
Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness
Order Respecting Time Limits Established by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Pension Continuation Regulations (COVID-19)
Extension
Extension of time limit
1 A time limit set out in column 2 of the schedule and established under the provision set out in column 1 is extended by 180 days or to December 31, 2020, if that day occurs before the day on which the 180-day extension ends.
Coming into Force
March 13, 2020
2 This Order is deemed to have come into force on March 13, 2020.
SCHEDULE
(Section 1)
Item | Column 1 Provision of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Pension Continuation Regulations |
Column 2 Time Limit Being Extended |
---|---|---|
1 | section 9 | 1 year |
2 | subsection 10(2) | 3 months |
3 | section 13 | 1 year |
4 | section 16 | 1 year |
5 | paragraph 21(3)(a) | 3 months |
6 | paragraph 21(3)(b) | 3 months |
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT
AERONAUTICS ACT
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 9
Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 9 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;
Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71footnote b and 4.9footnote c, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)footnote d and (b)footnote e and section 7.7footnote f of the Aeronautics Actfootnote g;
And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)footnote h of that Act, the Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;
Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1)footnote h of the Aeronautics Act footnote g, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 9.
Ottawa, September 28, 2020
Marc Garneau
Minister of Transport
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 9
Interpretation
Definitions
1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.
- aerodrome security personnel has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l’aérodrome)
- air carrier means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)
- checked baggage has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (bagages enregistrés)
- COVID-19 means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
- document of entitlement has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (document d’autorisation)
- elevated temperature means a temperature within the range set out in the standards. (température élevée)
- face mask means any non-medical mask or face covering that is made of at least two layers of tightly woven material such as cotton or linen, is large enough to completely cover a person’s nose and mouth without gaping and can be secured to a person’s head with ties or ear loops. (masque)
- foreign national means a person who is not a Canadian citizen or a permanent resident and includes a stateless person. (étranger)
- non-passenger screening checkpoint has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)
- passenger screening checkpoint has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)
- peace officer has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)
- Regulations means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)
- restricted area has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)
- screening officer has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)
- standards means the document entitled the Transport Canada Temperature Screening Standards, published by the Minister, as amended from time to time. (normes)
Interpretation
(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.
Conflict
(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.
Notification
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
Quarantine Act Order — other country except United States
(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country except the United States must notify every foreign national boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be prohibited from entering Canada under the Order made by the Governor General in Council, under the Quarantine Act, entitled Minimizing the Risk of Exposure to COVID-19 in Canada Order (Prohibition of Entry into Canada from any Country other than the United States).
Quarantine Act Order — United States
(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from the United States must notify every foreign national boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be prohibited from entering Canada under the Order made by the Governor General in Council, under the Quarantine Act, entitled Minimizing the Risk of Exposure to COVID-19 in Canada Order (Prohibition of Entry into Canada from the United States).
False declarations
(4) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1), (2) or (3) that they know to be false or misleading.
Confirmation
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
Quarantine Act Order — other country except United States
(2) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight to Canada departing from any other country except the United States, a foreign national must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that, to the best of their knowledge, they are not prohibited from entering Canada under the Order referred to in subsection 2(2).
Quarantine Act Order — United States
(3) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight to Canada departing from the United States, a foreign national must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that, to the best of their knowledge, they are not prohibited from entering Canada under the Order referred to in subsection 2(3).
False declaration
(4) A person must not provide a confirmation under subsection (1), (2) or (3) that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(5) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1), (2) or (3) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.
Prohibition
4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1), (2) or (3).
Foreign Nationals
Prohibition
5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.
Exception
6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an Order referred to in subsection 2(2) or (3).
Health Check
Non-application
7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:
- (a) a crew member;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
Health check
8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:
- (a) a fever;
- (b) a cough;
- (c) breathing difficulties.
Additional questions
(2) In addition to the health check, the private operator or air carrier must ask every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates
- (a) whether they have, or suspect they have, COVID-19;
- (b) whether they have been not permitted to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; and
- (c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, whether they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
Notification
(3) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if
- (a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
- (b) they have, or suspect they have, COVID-19;
- (c) they have been not permitted to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
- (d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
False declaration — obligation of private operator or air carrier
(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person not to provide answers that they know to be false or misleading with respect to the health check and the additional questions.
False declaration — obligations of person
(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (2), is subjected to a health check and is asked the additional questions must
- (a) answer all questions; and
- (b) not provide answers that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(6) A competent adult may answer all questions on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (2), is subjected to a health check and is asked the additional questions.
Observations — private operator or air carrier
(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).
Prohibition
9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person’s answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as they are boarding, the person exhibits
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (c) the person’s answer to any of the additional questions asked of them under subsection 8(2) is in the affirmative; or
- (d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or (2).
Period of 14 days
10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
Temperature Screening — Flights to Canada
Application
11 (1) Sections 12 to 18 apply to an air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.
Non-application
(2) Sections 12 to 18 do not apply to either of the following persons:
- (a) an infant;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement
12 (1) An air carrier must conduct a temperature screening of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Second screening
(2) The air carrier must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Notification
13 (1) An air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Confirmation
(2) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — elevated temperature
14 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the air carrier must
- (a) not permit the person to board the aircraft; and
- (b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — refusal
(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the air carrier must not permit the person to board the aircraft.
Period of 14 days
15 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 14 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement — equipment
16 An air carrier must calibrate and maintain the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) to ensure that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Requirement — training
17 An air carrier must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.
Record keeping — equipment
18 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information in respect of each flight it operates:
- (a) the number of persons who were not permitted to board the aircraft under paragraph 14(1)(a);
- (b) the date and flight number;
- (c) the make and model of the equipment that the air carrier used to conduct the temperature screenings under subsection 12(2);
- (d) the date and time that that equipment was last calibrated and last maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance;
- (e) the results of the last calibration and the activities performed during the last maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.
Record keeping — training
(2) An air carrier must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 17, as well as the contents of the training.
Retention period
(3) The air carrier must retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of 90 days after the day of the flight.
Ministerial access
(4) The air carrier must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.
Temperature Screening — Aerodromes in Canada
Definition of screening authority
19 (1) For the purposes of this section and sections 20 to 30, screening authority has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012.
Application
(2) Sections 20 to 30 apply to all of the following persons:
- (a) a person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area;
- (b) a person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
- (c) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
- (d) a screening authority at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
- (e) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1.
Non-application
(3) Sections 20 to 30 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) an infant;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19;
- (c) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (d) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Requirement
20 A person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building from a non-restricted area within the air terminal building must do so at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Requirement — temperature screening
21 (1) A screening authority must conduct a temperature screening of every person who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area and of every person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Second screening
(2) Following a rest period of 10 minutes, the screening authority must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Notification — consequence of elevated temperature
22 (1) An air carrier must notify every person, other than a crew member, who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 21(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Confirmation — consequence of elevated temperature
(2) Before passing beyond a passenger screening checkpoint to board an aircraft for a flight, every person other than a crew member must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 21(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — elevated temperature
23 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 21(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the screening authority must
- (a) deny the person entry to the restricted area; and
- (b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada or enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — refusal
(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the screening authority must deny them entry to the restricted area.
Period of 14 days
24 A person who is denied entry to the restricted area under section 23 is not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Denial — person intending to board aircraft
25 (1) If, under section 23, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight, other than a crew member, the screening authority must, for the purpose of paragraph 25(4)(a), notify the air carrier operating the flight that that person has been denied entry to the restricted area and provide the person’s name and flight number to the air carrier.
Denial — person not intending to board aircraft
(2) If, under section 23, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the screening authority must, for the purpose of subsection 25(5), provide the following information to the operator of the aerodrome:
- (a) the person’s name as it appears on their document of entitlement;
- (b) the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement;
- (c) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.
Denial — crew member
(3) If, under section 23, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member, the screening authority must provide the information referred to in subsection (2) to the air carrier for the purpose of allowing the air carrier to assign a replacement crew member, if necessary.
Denial — air carrier requirements
(4) An air carrier that has been notified under subsection (1) must
- (a) ensure that the person is directed to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, if applicable; and
- (b) if the person is escorted to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, ensure that the escort wears a face mask and maintains a distance of at least two metres between themselves and the person.
Denial — aerodrome operator requirement
(5) The operator of an aerodrome that has been notified under subsection (2) must suspend the person’s restricted area entry privileges for a period of 14 days after the person was denied entry to the restricted area, unless the person provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — restricted area
(6) If, under section 23, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member or to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the crew member or that person must not present themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint at any aerodrome for the purpose of entering a restricted area for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement — equipment
26 A screening authority must calibrate and maintain the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under section 21 to ensure that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Requirement — training
27 A screening authority must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under section 21 has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.
Record keeping — equipment
28 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information with respect to any temperature screening it conducts:
- (a) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 23(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint;
- (b) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 23(1)(a) at a non-passenger screening checkpoint;
- (c) the flight number of any person who is denied entry under paragraph 23(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint and the date on which the person was denied entry;
- (d) the make and model of the equipment that the screening authority uses to conduct the temperature screenings under section 21;
- (e) the date and time when that equipment was calibrated and maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance;
- (f) the results of the calibration and the activities performed during the maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.
Record keeping — training
(2) The screening authority must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 27, as well as the contents of the training.
Ministerial access
(3) The screening authority must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.
Temperature screening facilities
29 The operator of an aerodrome must make facilities available for temperature screening that are accessible without having to enter a restricted area.
Requirement — air carrier representative
30 An air carrier must ensure that the screening authority at the aerodrome has been provided with the name and telephone number of the on-duty representative of the air carrier for the purpose of facilitating the return of checked baggage to persons who are denied entry to a restricted area under section 23.
Face Masks
Non-application
31 Sections 32 to 37 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) an infant;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (c) a person who is unconscious;
- (d) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (e) a crew member;
- (f) a gate agent.
Notification
32 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that
- (a) the person must be in possession of a face mask prior to boarding;
- (b) the person must wear the face mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building when they are two metres or less from another person, unless both persons are occupants of the same dwelling-house or other place that serves that purpose; and
- (c) the person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Obligation to possess face mask
33 Every person must be in possession of a face mask prior to boarding an aircraft for a flight.
Wearing of face mask — persons
34 (1) Subject to subsections (2) to (4), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates when the person is two metres or less from another person.
Exceptions — person
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the only other persons who are two metres or less from the person are occupants of the person’s dwelling-house or other place that serves that purpose;
- (b) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (c) when the person is drinking, eating or taking oral medications;
- (d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person’s special needs; or
- (e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to verify the person’s identity.
Exceptions — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:
- (a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
- (b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
- (c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
- (d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
- (e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.
Exception — physical barrier
(4) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a person if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Compliance
35 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Prohibition — private operator or air carrier
36 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person is not in possession of a face mask; or
- (b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Refusal to comply
37 If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask, the private operator or air carrier must
- (a) keep a record of
- (i) the date and flight number,
- (ii) the person’s name and contact information,
- (iii) the person’s seat number, and
- (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
- (b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).
Wearing of face mask — crew member
38 (1) Subject to subsections (2) to (4), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates when the crew member is two metres or less from another person.
Exceptions — crew member
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (b) when the wearing of a face mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
- (c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.
Exception — physical barrier
(4) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member if the crew member is two metres or less from another person and the crew member and the other person are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Wearing of face mask — gate agent
39 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a face mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates when the gate agent is two metres or less from another person.
Exceptions
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is two metres or less from another person and the gate agent and the other person are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Deplaning
Non-application
40 Section 41 does not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) an infant;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (c) a person who is unconscious;
- (d) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (e) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.
Wearing of face mask — person
41 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a face mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building by a passenger loading bridge or otherwise when the person is two metres or less from another person, unless both persons are occupants of the same dwelling-house or other place that serves that purpose.
Screening Authority
Definition of screening authority
42 (1) For the purposes of sections 43 and 46, screening authority means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act.
Non-application
(2) Sections 43 to 46 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) an infant;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (c) a person who is unconscious;
- (d) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (e) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (f) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint
43 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Wearing of face mask — person
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Requirement to remove face mask
(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their face mask during screening must do so.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(4) A screening officer must wear a face mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.
Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint
44 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a face mask at all times.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a face mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Exceptions
(3) Subsection (2) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
45 Sections 43 and 44 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint
46 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a face mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint
(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a face mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Designated Provisions
Designation
47 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 2 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.
Maximum amounts
(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 2 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.
Notice
(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify
- (a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
- (b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
- (c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
- (d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
- (e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.
Repeal
48 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 8, made on September 15, 2020, is repealed.
SCHEDULE 1
(Subsection 19(2))
Name |
ICAO |
---|---|
Calgary International Airport |
CYYC |
Edmonton International Airport |
CYEG |
Halifax / Robert L. Stanfield International Airport |
CYHZ |
Kelowna International Airport |
CYLW |
Montréal / Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport |
CYUL |
Ottawa / Macdonald-Cartier International Airport |
CYOW |
Québec / Jean Lesage International Airport |
CYQB |
Regina International Airport |
CYQR |
Saskatoon / John G. Diefenbaker International Airport |
CYXE |
St. John’s International Airport |
CYYT |
Toronto / Billy Bishop Toronto City Airport |
CYTZ |
Toronto / Lester B. Pearson International Airport |
CYYZ |
Vancouver International Airport |
CYVR |
Victoria International Airport |
CYTZ |
Winnipeg / James Armstrong Richardson International Airport |
CYWG |
SCHEDULE 2
(Subsections 47(1) and (2))
Column 1 |
Column 2 |
|
---|---|---|
Individual |
Corporation |
|
Subsection 2(1) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 2(2) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 2(3) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 2(4) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 3(1) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 3(2) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 3(3) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 3(4) |
5,000 |
|
Section 4 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 5 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 8(1) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 8(2) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 8(3) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 8(4) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 8(5) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 8(7) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 9 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 10 |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 12(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 12(2) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 13(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 13(2) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 14(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 14(2) |
25,000 |
|
Section 15 |
5,000 |
|
Section 16 |
25,000 |
|
Section 17 |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 18(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 18(2) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 18(3) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 18(4) |
25,000 |
|
Section 20 |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 21(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 21(2) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 22(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 22(2) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 23(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 23(2) |
25,000 |
|
Section 24 |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 25(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 25(2) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 25(3) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 25(4) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 25(5) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 25(6) |
5,000 |
|
Section 26 |
25,000 |
|
Section 27 |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 28(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 28(2) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 28(3) |
25,000 |
|
Section 29 |
25,000 |
|
Section 30 |
25,000 |
|
Section 32 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 33 |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 34(1) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 35 |
5,000 |
|
Section 36 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 37 |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 38(1) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Subsection 39(1) |
5,000 |
25,000 |
Section 41 |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 43(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 43(2) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 43(3) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 43(4) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 44(1) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 44(2) |
5,000 |
|
Subsection 46(1) |
25,000 |
|
Subsection 46(2) |
25,000 |
GLOBAL AFFAIRS CANADA
Public release of the initial environmental assessment of the Canada-Mercosur Free Trade Agreement negotiations
In accordance with the Cabinet Directive on the Environmental Assessment of Policy, Plan and Program Proposals, Global Affairs Canada is committed to conducting environmental assessments for all trade and investment negotiations using a process that requires interdepartmental coordination and public consultation. The objectives of the environmental assessment of a trade agreement are
- (1) to assist Canadian negotiators in integrating environmental considerations into the negotiating process by providing information on the environmental impacts of a proposed trade and/or investment agreement; and
- (2) to document how environmental factors are being considered in the course of trade negotiations.
The Government of Canada is committed to sustainable development. Mutually supportive trade and environmental policies can contribute to this objective. To this end, the Minister of Small Business, Export Promotion and International Trade has directed trade officials to seek information and otherwise improve their understanding of the relationship between trade and environmental issues at the earliest stages of decision-making, and to do this through an open and inclusive process. Environmental assessments of trade negotiations are critical to this work.
On March 9, 2018, Canada officially launched negotiations toward a free trade agreement (FTA) with Mercosur. On September 11, 2018, the Government of Canada published a Notice of intent to conduct impact assessments of the Canada-Mercosur Free Trade Agreement negotiations. In light of the input received from stakeholders and Canadians, the Government of Canada is releasing on October 10, 2020, the initial environmental assessment of the Canada-Mercosur FTA negotiations. This initial environmental assessment attempts to determine whether significant environmental impacts are likely to occur as a result of a potential Canada-Mercosur FTA.
All interested parties are invited to submit their comments on the initial environmental assessment of the Canada-Mercosur FTA negotiations by November 10, 2020. Once negotiations conclude, and prior to ratification of the FTA, a final environmental assessment will be undertaken to assess the potential impacts of the negotiated outcome on the environment.
The Government of Canada is seeking the views of industry stakeholders, non-governmental organizations, and all interested Canadian citizens. If you are interested in participating, please do so by completing the online questionnaire.
Should you prefer to provide your comments directly to Global Affairs Canada, either as an individual or on behalf of an organization, or for any questions concerning this consultation, please contact
Consultations on the environmental assessment of the Canada-Mercosur Free Trade Agreement negotiations
Trade Agreements and North American Free Trade Agreement Secretariat (TCT)
Global Affairs Canada
125 Sussex Drive
Ottawa, Ontario
K1A 0G2
Email: EAconsultationsEE@international.gc.ca
Related links
Initial Environmental Assessment
Consulting Canadians on a possible Canada-Mercosur FTA
PRIVY COUNCIL OFFICE
Appointment opportunities
We know that our country is stronger — and our government more effective — when decision-makers reflect Canada’s diversity. The Government of Canada has implemented an appointment process that is transparent and merit-based, strives for gender parity, and ensures that Indigenous peoples and minority groups are properly represented in positions of leadership. We continue to search for Canadians who reflect the values that we all embrace: inclusion, honesty, fiscal prudence, and generosity of spirit. Together, we will build a government as diverse as Canada.
We are equally committed to providing a healthy workplace that supports one’s dignity, self-esteem and the ability to work to one’s full potential. With this in mind, all appointees will be expected to take steps to promote and maintain a healthy, respectful and harassment-free work environment.
The Government of Canada is currently seeking applications from diverse and talented Canadians from across the country who are interested in the following positions.
Current opportunities
The following opportunities for appointments to Governor in Council positions are currently open for applications. Every opportunity is open for a minimum of two weeks from the date of posting on the Governor in Council appointments website.
Position |
Organization |
Closing date |
---|---|---|
Member |
Atlantic Pilotage Authority Canada |
|
President and Chief Executive Officer |
Atomic Energy of Canada Limited |
|
Director |
Business Development Bank of Canada |
|
Director — Board Risk Committee Chairperson |
Business Development Bank of Canada |
|
President and Chief Executive Officer |
Canada Development Investment Corporation |
|
Commissioner for Employers |
Canada Employment Insurance Commission |
|
Commissioner for Workers |
Canada Employment Insurance Commission |
|
President and Chief Executive Officer |
Canada Lands Company Limited |
|
President |
Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation |
|
Member (Federal) |
Canada—Newfoundland and Labrador Offshore Petroleum Board |
|
President |
Canadian Commercial Corporation |
|
Commissioner (full-time), Commissioner (part-time) |
Canadian Energy Regulator |
|
Director |
Canadian Energy Regulator |
|
Chief Commissioner |
Canadian Grain Commission |
|
Commissioner |
Canadian Grain Commission |
|
Member |
Canadian Human Rights Tribunal |
|
Chairperson |
Canadian International Trade Tribunal |
|
Chairperson |
Canadian Museum of History |
|
Permanent Member |
Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission |
|
Executive Director |
Canadian Race Relations Foundation |
|
President |
Canadian Space Agency |
|
Chairperson |
Canadian Transportation Agency |
|
Temporary Member |
Canadian Transportation Agency |
|
Chief Administrator |
Courts Administration Service |
|
Director |
Export Development Canada |
|
Director |
Farm Credit Canada |
|
Chairperson |
Federal Public Sector Labour Relations and Employment Board |
|
Vice-Chairperson |
Federal Public Sector Labour Relations and Employment Board |
|
Chairperson |
Great Lakes Pilotage Authority Canada |
|
Director (Federal) |
Hamilton-Oshawa Port Authority |
|
Member, Northwest Territories |
Historic Sites and Monuments Board of Canada |
|
Assistant Deputy Chairperson |
Immigration and Refugee Board of Canada |
|
Member (appointment to roster) |
International Trade and International Investment Dispute Settlement Bodies |
|
Chairperson |
The Jacques Cartier and Champlain Bridges Incorporated |
|
Chairperson |
Marine Atlantic Inc. |
|
Director (Federal) |
Nanaimo Port Authority |
|
Secretary |
National Battlefields Commission |
|
Member |
Natural Sciences and Engineering Research Council of Canada |
|
Taxpayers’ Ombudsman |
Office of the Taxpayers’ Ombudsman |
|
Veterans’ Ombudsman |
Office of the Veterans’ Ombudsman |
|
Member |
Payments in Lieu of Taxes Dispute Advisory Panel |
|
Chairperson |
Polar Knowledge Canada |
|
Member |
Polar Knowledge Canada |
|
President |
Polar Knowledge Canada |
|
Director |
Public Sector Pension Investment Board |
|
Commissioner |
Roosevelt Campobello International Park Commission |
|
Member |
Social Sciences and Humanities Research Council of Canada |
|
President |
Social Sciences and Humanities Research Council of Canada |
|
Registrar |
Supreme Court of Canada |
|
Member |
Telefilm Canada |
|
Chairperson and Member |
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada |
|
Member |
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada |
|
Vice-Chairperson |
Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada |