Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 155, Number 46: GOVERNMENT NOTICES

November 13, 2021

BANK OF CANADA

Statement of financial position as at September 30, 2021 (unaudited)

Amounts are in millions of dollars.

Totals

Assets and Liabilities and Equity
Item	Amount
Assets	496,690.8
Liabilities and Equity	496,690.8

Assets

Cash and foreign deposits
Item	Amount
Cash and foreign deposits	7.3

Loans and receivables
Item	Amount
Securities purchased under resale agreements	29,604.2
Advances to members of Payments Canada	n/a
Other receivables	5.9
Total loans and receivables	29,610.1

Investments
Item	Amount
Government of Canada treasury bills	3,786.8
Government of Canada bonds — carried at amortized cost	122,566.4
Government of Canada bonds — carried at fair value through profit and loss	276,519.9
Canada Mortgage Bonds	9,591.0
Other bonds	16,547.2
Securities lent or sold under repurchase agreements	28,594.2
Other securities	108.5
Shares in the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)	481.8
Total investments	458,195.8

Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada
Item	Amount
Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada	8,019.2

Capital assets
Item	Amount
Property and equipment	535.3
Intangible assets	106.4
Right-of-use leased assets	42.1
Total capital assets	683.8

Other assets
Item	Amount
Other assets	174.6

Liabilities and Equity

Bank notes in circulation
Item	Amount
Bank notes in circulation	111,850.4

Deposits
Item	Amount
Government of Canada	60,631.4
Members of Payments Canada	285,387.6
Other deposits	9,718.9
Total deposits	355,737.9

Securities sold under repurchase agreements
Item	Amount
Securities sold under repurchase agreements	27,503.1

Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada
Item	Amount
Derivatives — Indemnity agreements with the Government of Canada	n/a

Other liabilities
Item	Amount
Other liabilities	1,009.3

Total liabilities
Item	Amount
Total liabilities	496,100.7

Equity
Item	Amount
Share capital	5.0
Statutory and special reserves	125.0
Investment revaluation reserve	443.8
Actuarial gains reserve	16.3
Total equity	590.1

I declare that the foregoing statement is correct according to the books of the Bank.

Ottawa, October 27, 2021

Coralia Bulhoes
Chief Financial Officer and Chief Accountant

I declare that the foregoing statement is to the best of my knowledge and belief correct, and shows truly and clearly the financial position of the Bank, as required by section 29 of the Bank of Canada Act.

Ottawa, October 27, 2021

Tiff Macklem
Governor

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Notice with respect to bisphenol A (BPA) and BPA structural analogues and functional alternatives

Pursuant to paragraph 71(1)(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (hereinafter referred to as the “Act’’), notice is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment requires, for the purpose of assessing whether the substances described in Schedule 1 to this notice are toxic or are capable of becoming toxic or for the purpose of assessing whether to control or the manner in which to control the listed substances, any person described in sections 2 and 3 of this notice to provide the information required in sections 5 to 11 that may be in their possession, or to which they would reasonably be expected to have access. This information is to be provided no later than March 16, 2022.

Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.

Pursuant to section 313 of the Act, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit, with the information, a written request that the information or part of it be treated as confidential. Claims for confidentiality should only be made when the submitted information is confidential under Canadian law and the Act. Further details are available in Environment and Climate Change Canada and Health Canada’s Approach to disclose confidential information and promote transparency in chemicals management.

Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Definitions

1. The definitions in this section apply in this notice.

Food packaging material: means anything in which a food or beverage is wholly or partly contained, placed, or packed.
Good: means a mixture, a product or a manufactured item.
Manufacture: means the creation or production of a substance and includes both the intentional and incidental production of the substance.
Manufactured item: means an item that is formed into a specific physical shape or design during manufacture and has, for its final use, a function or functions dependent in whole or in part on its shape or design.
Mixture: means a combination of substances that does not produce a substance that is different from the substances that were combined, including, but not limited to, a prepared formulation, hydrate, and reaction mixture that are characterized in terms of their constituents; and homogenous and heterogeneous alloys.
Product: excludes “substance”, “mixture” and “manufactured item.”
Substance: under this notice means any substance listed in Parts 1 and 2 of Schedule 1 of this notice.

Persons required to provide information

2. This notice applies to any person who, during the 2019 calendar year,

(1) manufactured a total quantity greater than 10 kg of a substance;
(2) imported a total quantity greater than 10 kg of a substance, whether the substance was
- (a) alone;
- (b) at a concentration equal to or above 0.02% by weight (w/w%) in a mixture or in a product; or
- (c) at a concentration equal to or above 0.02% by weight (w/w%) in a manufactured item that is
  - (i) intended to be used by or for children under the age of 14 years,
  - (ii) intended to come into contact with the mucosa of an individual,
  - (iii) cookware, or a cooking or serving utensil that is intended to come into direct contact with heated food or beverage,
  - (iv) food packaging material, including single-serve/disposable bowls, plates, cups, other serving-ware, as well as food cans and lid liners, that are intended to or may come into direct contact with food or beverage,
  - (v) a reusable food or beverage container,
  - (vi) used as intended in a manner such that the substance may be inhaled, or come into dermal or oral contact with an individual,
  - (vii) clothing or footwear, including life jackets and personal flotation devices,
  - (viii) bedding, sleeping bag or towel,
  - (ix) furniture, mattress, cushion or pillow intended to be used by an individual, where the substance is contained in foam or leather or in a textile fibre, yarn or fabric,
  - (x) carpet, vinyl or laminate flooring, or foam underlay for flooring, intended to be used by an individual,
  - (xi) water pipes, or
  - (xii) thermal paper; or
(3) used a total quantity greater than 10 kg of a substance, whether the substance was used alone or at a concentration equal to or above 0.02% by weight (w/w%) in a good, to produce a good.

3. This notice applies to any person or class of persons who is the successor or assign of the persons identified in section 2.

Exclusions

4. This notice does not apply to a substance, whether alone or in a good, that

(a) is only in transit through Canada;
(b) is, or is contained in, a hazardous waste or hazardous recyclable material within the meaning of the Export and Import of Hazardous Waste and Hazardous Recyclable Material Regulations and was imported pursuant to a permit issued under these Regulations;
(c) is, or is contained in, a pest control product registered under the Pest Control Products Act;
(d) is, or is contained in, a fertilizer or supplement registered under the Fertilizers Act;
(e) is, or is contained in, a feed registered under the Feeds Act;
(f) is mixed with, or attached to, a seed registered under the Seeds Act;
(g) is contained in recycled paper received by paper recycling mills;
(h) is bisphenol A (CAS RN^{footnote 1} 80-05-7) contained in a medical device; or
(i) is manufactured, imported or used to produce a good by laboratories, academic institutions, research facilities or dental offices.

Information required

5. If the person subject to the notice owns more than one facility, a single response to the notice shall be submitted. Except for the purpose of section 8, the single response shall amalgamate the information from all facilities owned by the person for each applicable question in the notice.

6. Any person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information:

(a) the name of the person;
(b) the address;
(c) the federal business number;^{footnote 2}
(d) the name, email and phone number of an individual authorized to act on behalf of the person; and
(e) a declaration that the information is accurate and complete.

7. For each substance for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the total quantity of the substance that the person manufactured, imported, used, whether alone or in a good, to produce a good, and exported in kilograms (kg) for the 2019 calendar year.

8. For each substance for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the 2019 calendar year:

(a) the Canadian facility name and address where the substance was manufactured, to which it was imported alone or in a mixture, or where it was used, whether alone or in a good, to produce a good;
(b) whether the facility is used solely for distribution or warehousing;
(c) the physical forms of the substance, whether alone or in a good, throughout manufacture, processing, handling and use to produce a good
- (i) dry powder,
- (ii) pellets or large crystals,
- (iii) water- or solvent-wet solid,
- (iv) other solid,
- (v) gas or vapour, or
- (vi) liquid;
(d) a summary of the manufacture, processing and handling of the substance and its use, whether alone or in a good, to produce a good, including major steps and tasks in the operation and controls in place to reduce potential exposure of the substance to workers; and
(e) whether the substance is known to, is anticipated to or may be released or lost to air, water or land, by indicating “yes” or “no” and providing the following for the specified environmental medium:
- (i) a description of the potential releases and losses of the substance,
- (ii) a description of prevention or mitigation measures in place to prevent or minimize releases of the substance (e.g. solid waste management practices, waste water treatment systems, air emission reduction strategies),
- (iii) the annual average and maximum concentration of substance in effluent discharged from the facility, reported in micrograms per litre (μg/L), and method used for determining concentration, and
- (iv) other available monitoring results of releases of the substance.

9. For each substance for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information:

(a) any unpublished data or studies with regard to occupational exposure, such as
- (i) monitoring data collected in the workplace, and
- (ii) studies examining workers handling the substance in the workplace;
(b) any unpublished data or studies with regard to any of the following, that have not already been provided to the Government of Canada to comply with the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers) and that do not pertain only to bisphenol A, CAS RN 80-05-7:
- (i) mammalian study endpoints
  - (A) acute toxicity (oral, dermal, and inhalation),
  - (B) short-term toxicity (oral, dermal, and inhalation),
  - (C) subchronic toxicity (oral, dermal, and inhalation),
  - (D) carcinogenicity,
  - (E) in vitro genotoxicity (mutagenicity or clastogenicity),
  - (F) in vivo genotoxicity (mutagenicity or clastogenicity),
  - (G) developmental and reproductive toxicity,
  - (H) absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion,
  - (I) endocrine effect(s),
  - (J) dermal absorption, and
  - (K) any additional unpublished data or studies not listed that may be relevant to the evaluation of the potential of the substance to affect human health;
- (ii) ecological study endpoints
  - (A) biodegradation,
  - (B) bioaccumulation factor, bioconcentration factor, and biomagnification factor,
  - (C) ecotoxicity (experimental acute and chronic studies for pelagic, benthic, and terrestrial organisms),
  - (D) environmental monitoring and presence,
  - (E) persistence,
  - (F) chemical transformation,
  - (G) leaching potential, and
  - (H) any additional unpublished data or studies not listed that may be relevant to the evaluation of the potential of the substance to affect the environment;
- (iii) physical-chemical properties, such as
  - (A) melting point,
  - (B) boiling point,
  - (C) vapour pressure,
  - (D) water solubility or water extractability,
  - (E) octanol-water partition coefficient (log K_ow),
  - (F) organic carbon-water partition coefficient (log K_oc), and
  - (G) acid dissociation constant; and
- (iv) degradation, characterization, or the release, leaching or migration of the substance from the final good, including measurements or calculations of migration into food; and
(c) the title of the data or study provided.

10. (1) For each substance for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the 2019 calendar year for the known or anticipated final goods; if the known or anticipated final goods are unknown and information on these is not reasonably accessible, the person shall provide the information for their own goods containing the substance:

(a) the substance function code(s) set out in Schedule 2 that apply to the substance;
(b) where code U999 is provided pursuant to paragraph 10(1)(a), a written description of the substance function must be provided;
(c) for each substance function code provided, the application code(s) set out in Schedule 3 that describe the goods;
(d) whether the substance function code and application code apply to the known or anticipated final goods, or the person’s goods containing the substance; and
(e) for each combination of substance function code and application code, the person shall provide the following information:
- (i) the concentration, or range of concentrations, of the substance by weight (w/w%),
- (ii) the quantity, or quantity range, of the substance in kilograms (kg),
- (iii) a description of the goods,
- (iv) the common, generic, or trade names if not already provided to the Government of Canada to comply with the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers),
- (v) whether the goods are intended for use in commercial activities,
- (vi) whether the goods are intended for use in consumer activities, and
- (vii) whether the goods are intended for use by or for children 14 years of age or younger.

(2) Where code C301.01 or C301.02 is provided pursuant to paragraph 10(1)(c), the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information:

(a) whether the substance is intended to or may be in direct contact with food or beverage, as opposed to being on the exterior of the packaging or container; and
(b) the types of food or beverage that could be contained in and in contact with the packaging or container.

11. For each substance listed in Part 2 of Schedule 1 that a person manufactured or used, whether alone or in a good, to produce a good, for which the criteria set out in section 2 have been met, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the 2019 calendar year:

(a) the chemical identity or CAS RN of the reactants or components of the substance; and
(b) the concentration, or range of concentrations, of each reactant or component by weight (w/w%).

SCHEDULE 1

Substances

PART 1
CAS RN	Substance name	Common name
70-30-4	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro-	n/a
76-59-5	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2-bromo-3-methyl-6-(1-methylethyl)-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
76-60-8	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2,6-dibromo-3-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
76-61-9	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[5-methyl-2-(1-methylethyl)-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
76-62-0	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3,3-bis(3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxyphenyl)-	n/a
77-40-7	4,4′-(1-methylpropylidene)bisphenol	Bisphenol B
77-62-3	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-methyl-6-(1-methylcyclohexyl)-	n/a
79-94-7	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2,6-dibromo-	TBBPA
79-96-9	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	n/a
79-97-0	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-methyl-	Bisphenol C
79-98-1	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-chloro-	n/a
80-05-7	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-	Bisphenol A (BPA)
80-07-9	Benzene, 1,1′-sulfonylbis[4-chloro-	n/a
80-09-1	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfonylbis-	Bisphenol S (BPS)
81-90-3	Benzoic acid, 2-[bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-	n/a
88-24-4	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-ethyl-	n/a
90-66-4	Phenol, 2,2′-thiobis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-methyl-	n/a
90-68-6	Phenol, 2,6-bis[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methyl-	n/a
96-66-2	Phenol, 4,4′-thiobis[2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-methyl-	n/a
97-18-7	Phenol, 2,2′-thiobis[4,6-dichloro-	Bithionol
97-23-4	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-chloro-	n/a
97-29-0	1,3-Benzenediol, 4,4′-thiobis-	n/a
115-39-9	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2,6-dibromo-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
115-40-2	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2-bromo-6-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
115-41-3	1,2-Benzenediol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
119-47-1	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-methyl-	n/a
123-31-9	1,4-Benzenediol	Hydroquinone
125-20-2	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3,3-bis[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-	n/a
125-31-5	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2,5-dimethyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
126-00-1	Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-hydroxy-γ-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-γ-methyl-	n/a
127-54-8	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-(1-methylethyl)-	Bisphenol G
143-74-8	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
519-34-6	Methanone, (3,4-dihydroxyphenyl)(2,4,6-trihydroxyphenyl)-	n/a
569-58-4	Benzoic acid, 5-[(3-carboxy-4-hydroxyphenyl)(3-carboxy-4-oxo-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene)methyl]-2-hydroxy-, triammonium salt	n/a
596-27-0	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3,3-bis(4-hydroxy-3-methylphenyl)-	n/a
596-28-1	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3,3-bis(3,4-dihydroxyphenyl)-	n/a
599-64-4	Phenol, 4-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-	4-Cumylphenol
603-45-2	2,5-Cyclohexadien-1-one, 4-[bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)methylene]-	n/a
620-92-8	Phenol, 4,4′-methylenebis-	Bisphenol F (BPF)
837-08-1	Phenol, 2-[1-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylethyl]-	n/a
843-55-0	Phenol, 4,4′-cyclohexylidenebis-	Bisphenol Z
1478-61-1	Phenol, 4,4′-[2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl)ethylidene]bis-	Bisphenol AF
1571-75-1	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-phenylethylidene)bis-	Bisphenol AP
1611-35-4	Glycine, N,N′-[3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidenebis[(6-hydroxy-5-methyl-3,1-phenylene)methylene]]bis[N-(carboxymethyl)-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
1620-68-4	Phenol, 2,6-bis[(2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl)methyl]-4-methyl-	n/a
1675-54-3	Oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxymethylene)]bis-	BADGE
1733-12-6	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
1745-89-7	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-(2-propenyl)-	n/a
1752-24-5	Phenol, 4,4′-iminobis-	n/a
1774-34-1	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfinylbis-	n/a
1820-99-1	Benzoic acid, 3,3′-thiobis[6-hydroxy-	n/a
1844-01-5	Phenol, 4,4′-(diphenylmethylene)bis-	Bisphenol BP
1940-20-1	Phenol, 3,4,4′,5′,6,6′-hexachloro-2,2′-methylenedi-	n/a
1943-96-0	Phenol, 4,4′-bicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-ylidenebis-	n/a
1943-97-1	Phenol, 4,4′-(octahydro-4,7-methano-5H-inden-5-ylidene)bis-	n/a
1965-09-9	Phenol, 4,4′-oxybis-	n/a
2081-08-5	Phenol, 4,4′-ethylidenebis-	Bisphenol E
2167-51-3	Phenol, 4,4′-1,4-phenylenebis(1-methylethylidene)bis-	Bisphenol P
2300-15-4	Phenol, 2,4-bis[1-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylethyl]-	n/a
2303-01-7	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[3-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
2411-89-4	Glycine, N,N′-[(3-oxo-1(3H)-isobenzofuranylidene)bis[(6-hydroxy-5-methyl-3,1-phenylene)methylene]]bis[N-(carboxymethyl)-	n/a
2467-02-9	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis-	Bisphenol F-ortho
2467-03-0	Phenol, 2-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-	2,4′-Bisphenol F
2588-24-1	Benzoic acid, 3,3′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[6-hydroxy-5-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
2664-63-3	Phenol, 4,4′-thiobis-	4,4′-Thiodiphenol
2971-36-0	Phenol, 4,4′-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis-	n/a
3188-83-8	Benzenemethanol, 5-[1-methyl-1-[4-(oxiranylmethoxy)phenyl]ethyl]-2-(oxiranylmethoxy)-	n/a
3236-63-3	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-methyl-	n/a
3236-71-3	Phenol, 4,4′-(9H-fluoren-9-ylidene)bis-	BHPF
3294-03-9	Phenol, 2,2′-thiobis[4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-	n/a
3818-54-0	Phenol, 4,4′-thiobis[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-5-methyl-	n/a
3957-22-0	1,3-Benzenedimethanol, 5,5′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-hydroxy-	n/a
4066-02-8	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[6-cyclohexyl-4-methyl-	n/a
4430-20-0	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2-chloro-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
4430-25-5	Phenol, 4,4′-(4,5,6,7-tetrabromo-3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2,6-dibromo-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
4431-00-9	Benzoic acid, 5-[(3-carboxy-4-hydroxyphenyl)(3-carboxy-4-oxo-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene)methyl]-2-hydroxy-	n/a
5129-00-0	Benzeneacetic acid, 4-hydroxy-α-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-, methyl ester	MBHA
5329-21-5	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2-nitro-	n/a
5397-34-2	Phenol, 2-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]-	2,4′-BPS
5613-46-7	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2,6-dimethyl-	n/a
5945-33-5	Phosphoric acid, P,P′-[(1-methylethylidene)di-4,1-phenylene] P,P,P′,P′-tetraphenyl ester	Fyrolflex BDP
6274-83-5	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[5-(diethylamino)-	n/a
6386-73-8	Phenol, 2,6-dibromo-4-[1-(3-bromo-4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylethyl]-	n/a
6807-17-6	Phenol, 4,4′-(1,3-dimethylbutylidene)bis-	n/a
7292-14-0	Phenol, 2,2′-(3,5,5-trimethylhexylidene)bis[4,6-dimethyl-	n/a
7328-97-4	Oxirane, 2,2′,2″,2′′′-[1,2-ethanediylidenetetrakis(4,1-phenyleneoxymethylene)]tetrakis-	n/a
7727-33-5	Phenol, 4,4′,4″,4′′′-(1,2-ethanediylidene)tetrakis-	n/a
7786-17-6	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-methyl-6-nonyl-	n/a
10143-03-0	Benzoic acid, 3,3′-[[4-(dimethylamino)phenyl]methylene]bis[6-hydroxy-5-methyl-	n/a
10187-52-7	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-chloro-, monosodium salt	n/a
10496-54-5	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3-[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-3-[2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-4-(phosphonooxy)phenyl]-, magnesium salt (1:1)	n/a
13027-28-6	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 4,5,6,7-tetrabromo-3,3-bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)-	n/a
13288-70-5	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfonylbis[2,6-dimethyl-	n/a
13595-25-0	Phenol, 4,4′-[1,3-phenylenebis(1-methylethylidene)]bis-	Bisphenol M
13676-82-9	Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[2,6-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	n/a
13693-59-9	Phenol, 2,2′-thiobis-	n/a
14200-84-1	Phenol, 3-(3-phenoxyphenoxy)-	n/a
14362-12-0	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4,6-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	n/a
14868-03-2	Phenol, 4,4′-(dichloroethenylidene)bis-	Bisphenol C
15038-67-2	Phenol, 2,2′-sulfonylbis-	n/a
15452-89-8	Phenol, 2,2′-sulfonylbis[4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-	n/a
16669-42-4	Phenol, 4,4′-isopropylidenebis[2,3,5,6-tetrachloro-	n/a
17016-43-2	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3-[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-3-[2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-4-(phosphonooxy)phenyl]-	n/a
17755-37-2	Phenol, 2-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)thio]-	n/a
20227-53-6	Phosphorous acid, 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-[1-[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-hydroxyphenyl]-1-methylethyl]phenyl bis(4-nonylphenyl) ester	n/a
24038-68-4	1,1′-Biphenyl-2-ol, 5,5″-(1-methylethylidene)bis-	Bisphenol PH
25639-41-2	Phenol, methylidynetris-	n/a
27151-54-8	Phenol, 4-[(4-methoxyphenyl)amino]-	n/a
27496-82-8	Benzoic acid, methylenebis[2-hydroxy-	n/a
27725-17-3	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-	n/a
27955-94-8	Phenol, 4,4′,4″-ethylidynetris-	n/a
28341-66-4	1,3-Benzenediol, 4,4′-thiobis[2-methyl-	n/a
28341-67-5	1,3-Benzenediol, 4,4′-sulfinylbis[2-methyl-	n/a
28341-68-6	Resorcinol, 4,4′-thiobis[6-chloro-	n/a
28749-63-5	1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3-[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-3-[2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-4-(phosphonooxy)phenyl]-, sodium salt	n/a
29036-21-3	Phenol, (1-propanyl-3-ylidene)tris-	n/a
31265-39-1	1,3-Benzenediol, 4,4′-[(5-chloro-2-hydroxy-1,3-phenylene)bis(methylene)]bis-	n/a
31851-03-3	Phenol, 2,6-bis[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]octahydro-4,7-methano-1H-indenyl]-4-methyl-	n/a
32509-66-3	Benzenepropanoic acid, 3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-β-[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-hydroxyphenyl]-4-hydroxy-β-methyl-, 1,2-ethanediyl ester	n/a
33145-10-7	Phenol, 2,2′-(2-methylpropylidene)bis[4,6-dimethyl-	n/a
34487-61-1	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis-, S,S-dioxide, monosodium salt	n/a
36339-47-6	Phenol, 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-[[5-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-hydroxy-2-methylphenyl]thio]-5-methyl-, 1,1′,1″-phosphite	n/a
39635-79-5	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfonylbis[2,6-dibromo-	n/a
39817-09-9	Oxirane, 2,2′-[methylenebis(phenyleneoxymethylene)]bis-	n/a
40232-93-7	Benzeneacetic acid, 4-hydroxy-α-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-	n/a
40703-84-2	Phenol, 2,2′,2″-[1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triyltris[oxy[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-5-methyl-2,1-phenylene]methylene]]tris[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-methyl-	n/a
41481-66-7	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfonylbis[2-(2-propenyl)-	TGSA
41699-00-7	Phenol, 2,2′-(octahydro-4,7-methano-1H-indenediyl)bis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-methyl-	n/a
47465-97-4	2H-Indol-2-one, 1,3-dihydro-3,3-bis(4-hydroxy-3-methylphenyl)-	n/a
47758-37-2	Oxirane, 2,2′-[9H-fluoren-9-ylidenebis(4,1-phenyleneoxymethylene)]bis-	n/a
50378-93-3	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4,6-bis(1,1-dimethylpropyl)-	n/a
57564-54-2	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2,6-dinitro-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
57569-40-1	1,4-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis[2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methylphenyl] ester	n/a
57964-01-9	[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4-ol, 3,3″-thiobis[4′,5-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	n/a
59189-82-1	Phosphorous acid, didodecyl 4-[1-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylethyl]phenyl ester	n/a
60247-61-2	Pentanamide, N-[2-chloro-5-[(hexadecylsulfonyl)amino]phenyl]-2-[4-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]phenoxy]-4,4-dimethyl-3-oxo-	n/a
60381-07-9	Phosphorous acid, dodecyl bis[4-[1-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-1-methylethyl]phenyl] ester	n/a
61167-58-6	2-Propenoic acid, 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methylphenyl ester	n/a
61167-60-0	2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-[[3-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-hydroxy-5-methylphenyl]methyl]-4-methylphenyl ester	n/a
61931-71-3	Benzoic acid, 2-[bis(3,5-dibromo-4-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-, ethyl ester	n/a
62609-87-4	Benzenesulfonic acid, 3,3′-(3-oxo-1(3H)-isobenzofuranylidene)bis[6-hydroxy-, trisodium salt	n/a
62625-21-2	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[5-methyl-2-(1-methylethyl)-, S,S-dioxide, monosodium salt	n/a
62625-29-0	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[2-methyl-, S,S-dioxide, monosodium salt	n/a
62625-31-4	Phenol, 4,4′-(3H-1,2-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[3-methyl-, S,S-dioxide, monosodium salt	n/a
63134-33-8	Phenol, 4-[[4-(phenylmethoxy)phenyl]sulfonyl]-	BPS-MPE
63450-78-2	Benzoic acid, 2-[bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-, ethyl ester	n/a
63468-95-1	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[5-(dimethylamino)-	n/a
63665-75-8	Phenol, 4,4′-(1,2-benzisothiazol-3(2H)-ylidene)bis[2-methyl-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
64022-67-9	Phenol, 4-[1-methyl-1-[4-[(9-phenoxy-2,4,8,10-tetraoxa-3,9-diphosphaspiro[5.5]undec-3-yl)oxy]phenyl]ethyl]-	n/a
64131-28-8	Phenol, 2,6-bis[(2-hydroxy-3,5-dinonylphenyl)methyl]-4-nonyl-	n/a
66072-38-6	Oxirane, 2,2′,2″-[methylidynetris(phenyleneoxymethylene)]tris-	n/a
66214-40-2	2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 7-[[2-hydroxy-5-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]phenyl]methyl]-	n/a
66327-55-7	2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 7-[[2-hydroxy-5-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]phenyl]methyl](1-methylpropyl)-, monoammonium salt	n/a
67786-03-2	Oxirane, 2,2′-[[[2-(oxiranylmethoxy)phenyl]methylene]bis(4,1-phenyleneoxymethylene)]bis-	n/a
67828-35-7	Phenol, 2,6-dibromo-4-[3-(3,5-dibromo-4-butoxyphenyl)-3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-yl]-, S,S-dioxide	n/a
67828-51-7	1,3-Benzenediol, 4,4′-(5-hydroxypentylidene)bis-	n/a
67923-95-9	Phenol, methylenebis[dinonyl-	n/a
68134-20-3	2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 4-amino-6-[(2-chloro-4-nitrophenyl)azo]-5-hydroxy-3-[[2-hydroxy-4-[[3-hydroxy-4-[[4-[(4-nitro-2-sulfophenyl)amino]phenyl]azo]phenyl]amino]phenyl]azo]-	n/a
68310-82-7	2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 3-[[5-hydroxy-2-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]phenyl]methyl]-	n/a
68716-15-4	Methanone, [methylenebis(6-hydroxy-4-methoxy-3,1-phenylene)]bis[phenyl-	n/a
68815-67-8	Phenol, thiobis[tetrapropylene-	n/a
68959-14-8	2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 3-[[5-hydroxy-2-[(4-hydroxyphenyl)sulfonyl]phenyl]methyl]-, monosodium salt	n/a
69119-80-8	Methanone, [methylenebis(2-hydroxy-4-methoxy-3,1-phenylene)]bis[phenyl-	n/a
70367-99-6	1,2-Benzisothiazole-2(3H)-carboxylic acid, 3,3-bis(4-hydroxy-3,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-, 2-(methylsulfonyl)ethyl ester, 1,1-dioxide	n/a
71077-33-3	Benzeneacetic acid, 4-hydroxy-α-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-, butyl ester	n/a
71113-22-9	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-	n/a
71113-23-0	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4,6-bis(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-	n/a
71463-72-4	Phenol, 4-[(4-hydroxy-2-methylphenyl)thio]-3-methyl-, 1,1′,1″-phosphate	n/a
72139-00-5	2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 3-[(2-chloro-4-nitrophenyl)azo]-4-hydroxy-7-[[2-hydroxy-4-[[3-hydroxy-4-[[4-[(4-nitro-2-sulfophenyl)amino]phenyl]azo]phenyl]amino]phenyl]azo]-	n/a
72361-37-6	1,2-Benzenediol, thiobis[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	n/a
72672-54-9	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-(1-methylpropyl)-	n/a
72672-55-0	Phenol, 2,2′-ethylidenebis[6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-(1-methylpropyl)-	n/a
83558-87-6	Phenol, 4,4′-[2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl)ethylidene]bis[2-amino-	n/a
93589-69-6	Phenol, 4,4′-methylenebis(oxy-2,1-ethanediylthio)bis-	DD-70
95235-30-6	Phenol, 4-[[4-(1-methylethoxy)phenyl]sulfonyl]-	D-8
97042-18-7	bis(4-Hydroxyphenyl) sulfone monoallyl ether	BPS-MAE
103597-45-1	Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[6-(2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)-4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-	n/a
111850-25-0	Phenol, 4,4′,4″-(1-methyl-1-propanyl-3-ylidene)tris[2-cyclohexyl-5-methyl-	n/a
129188-99-4	Phenol, 4,4′-(3,3,5-trimethylcyclohexylidene)bis-	Bisphenol TMC
151882-81-4	Benzenesulfonamide, N,N′-[methylenebis(4,1-phenyleneiminocarbonyl)]bis[4-methyl-	BTUM
232938-43-1	Benzenesulfonamide, 4-methyl-N-[[[3-[[(4-methylphenyl)sulfonyl]oxy]phenyl]amino]carbonyl]-	Pergafast 201

PART 2
CAS RN	Name of the substance	Common name
39382-25-7	2-Butenedioic acid (E)-, polymer with α,α′-[(1-methylethylidene)di-4,1-phenylene]bis[ω-hydroxypoly[oxy(methyl-1,2-ethanediyl)]]	Bisphenol A propylene oxide fumarate polymer
68510-93-0	1-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 6-diazo-5,6-dihydro-5-oxo-, ester with phenyl(2,3,4-trihydroxyphenyl)methanone	n/a
85186-33-0	Iron, [µ-[[3,3′-methylenebis[(4,6-dihydroxy-3,1-phenylene)azo]bis[2(or 4)-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzenesulfonato]](6-)]]di-, sodium hydrogen	n/a
113693-69-9	Phenol, 4,4′-methylenebis[2,6-dimethyl-, polymer with 2-(chloromethyl)oxirane	Tetramethyl bisphenol F epoxy resin
181028-79-5	Phosphoric trichloride, reaction products with bisphenol A and phenol	n/a
191680-83-8	Phenol, 4,4′-sulfonylbis-, polymer with 1,1′-oxybis(2-chloroethane)	D-90
321860-75-7	Phenol, reaction products with 4,4′-sulfonylbis[benzenamine] and 2,4-TDI	UU (urea-urethane compound)

SCHEDULE 2

Substance function codes
Substance function codes	Title	Description
U001	Abrasives	Substances used to wear down or polish surfaces by rubbing against the surface.
U002	Adhesives and sealant substances	Substances used to promote bonding between other substances, promote adhesion of surfaces, or prevent seepage of moisture or air.
U003	Adsorbents and absorbents	Substances used to retain other substances by accumulation on their surface or by assimilation.
U004	Agricultural substances (non-pesticidal)	Substances used to increase the productivity and quality of farm crops.
U005	Anti-adhesive agents	Substances used to prevent bonding between other substances by discouraging surface attachment.
U006	Bleaching agents	Substances used to lighten or whiten a substrate through chemical reaction, usually an oxidative process which degrades the colour system.
U007	Corrosion inhibitors and anti-scaling agents	Substances used to prevent or retard corrosion or the formation of scale.
U008	Dyes	Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by penetrating into the surface of the substrate.
U009	Fillers	Substances used to provide bulk, increase strength, increase hardness, or improve resistance to impact.
U010	Finishing agents	Substances used to impart such functions as softening, static-proofing, wrinkle resistance, and water repellence.
U011	Flame retardants	Substances used on the surface of or incorporated into combustible materials to reduce or eliminate their tendency to ignite when exposed to heat or a flame.
U012	Fuels and fuel additives	Substances used to create mechanical or thermal energy through chemical reactions, or which are added to a fuel for the purpose of controlling the rate of reaction or limiting the production of undesirable combustion products, or which provide other benefits such as corrosion inhibition, lubrication, or detergency.
U013	Functional fluids (closed systems)	Liquid or gaseous substances used for one or more operational properties in a closed system. This code does not include fluids used as lubricants.
U014	Functional fluids (open systems)	Liquid or gaseous substances used for one or more operational properties in an open system.
U015	Intermediates	Substances consumed in a reaction to produce other substances for commercial advantage.
U016	Ion exchange agents	Substances that are used to selectively remove targeted ions from a solution. This code also includes aluminosilicate zeolites.
U017	Lubricants and lubricant additives	Substances used to reduce friction, heat, or wear between moving parts or adjacent solid surfaces, or that enhance the lubricity of other substances.
U018	Odour agents	Substances used to control odours, remove odours, mask odours, or impart odours.
U019	Oxidizing and reducing agents	Substances used to alter the valence state of another substance by donating or accepting electrons or by the addition or removal of hydrogen to a substance.
U020	Photosensitive substances	Substances used for their ability to alter their physical or chemical structure through absorption of light, resulting in the emission of light, dissociation, discoloration, or other chemical reaction.
U021	Pigments	Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by attaching themselves to the surface of the substrate through binding or adhesion.
U022	Plasticizers	Substances used in plastics, cement, concrete, wallboard, clay bodies, or other materials to increase their plasticity or fluidity.
U023	Plating agents and surface treating agents	Substances applied to metal, plastic, or other surfaces to alter physical or chemical properties of the surface.
U024	Process regulators	Substances used to change the rate of a reaction, start or stop the reaction, or otherwise influence the course of the reaction.
U025	Processing aids, specific to petroleum production	Substances added to water, oil, or synthetic drilling muds or other petroleum production fluids to control foaming, corrosion, alkalinity and pH, microbiological growth or hydrate formation, or to improve the operation of processing equipment during the production of oil, gas, and other products or mixtures from beneath the earth’s surface.
U026	Processing aids, not otherwise covered in this table	Substances used in applications other than the production of oil, gas, or geothermal energy to control foaming, corrosion or alkalinity and pH, or to improve the operation of processing equipment.
U027	Propellants and blowing agents	Substances used to dissolve or suspend other substances and either to expel those substances from a container in the form of an aerosol or to impart a cellular structure to plastics, rubber, or thermoset resins.
U028	Solids separation agents	Substances used to promote the separation of suspended solids from a liquid.
U029	Solvents (for cleaning or degreasing)	Substances used to dissolve oils, greases and similar materials from textiles, glassware, metal surfaces, and other articles.
U030	Solvents (which become part of formulation or mixture)	Substances used to dissolve another substance to form a uniformly dispersed solution at the molecular level.
U031	Surface active agents	Substances used to modify surface tension when dissolved in water or water solutions, or reduce interfacial tension between two liquids or between a liquid and a solid or between liquid and air.
U032	Viscosity adjustors	Substances used to alter the viscosity of another substance.
U033	Laboratory substances	Substances used in a laboratory for chemical analysis, chemical synthesis, extracting and purifying other chemicals, dissolving other substances, and similar activities.
U034	Paint additives and coating additives not otherwise covered in this table	Substances used in a paint or coating formulation to enhance properties such as water repellence, increased gloss, improved fade resistance, ease of application or foam prevention.
U061	Pest control substances	Substances used as active ingredients in products, mixtures or manufactured items used for directly or indirectly controlling, destroying, attracting or repelling a pest or for mitigating or preventing its injurious, noxious or troublesome effects.
U062	Active ingredients in health products and drugs	Substances used as active ingredients in natural health products or prescription or non-prescription drugs.
U063	Flavourants	Substances used as non-medicinal ingredients or excipients in foods, natural health products, and drugs that impart a certain flavor to the food, natural health product or drug.
U064	Contaminants	Substances naturally present in a reactant or substances that are produced as a result of the manufacturing process and have no beneficial properties in the final product, mixture or manufactured item.
U065	By-products	Substances resulting from the manufacturing process, which can be partially or completely removed from the intended product, mixture or manufactured item and have commercial value on their own or when added to another product, mixture or manufactured item.
U066	Wastes	Substances that are removed from the final product, mixture or manufactured item during the manufacturing process and have no commercial value.
U067	Function of substance in imported manufactured item unknown	Substance function in imported manufactured item is unknown. To be used only for imported manufactured items.
U999	Other (specify)	Substances with a function not otherwise described in this table. A written description must be provided when using this code.

SCHEDULE 3

Application codes

PART 1

Substances used for furnishings, cleaning, treatment or care
Application codes	Title	Description
C101	Floor coverings	Substances contained in floor coverings. This code does not include wood and pressed wood flooring products included in Building/Construction Materials — Wood and Engineered Wood code.
C102	Foam seating and bedding	Substances contained in foam mattresses, pillows, cushions, and any seating, furniture and furnishings containing foam.
C103	Furniture and furnishings not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in furniture and furnishings made from metal, wood, leather, plastic or other materials. This code does not include foam seating and bedding products.
C104	Fabric, textile and leather articles not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in fabric, textile and leather products to impart colour and other desirable properties such as water, soil, stain repellence, wrinkle resistance, or flame resistance.
C105	Cleaning and furnishing care	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used to remove dirt, grease, stains, and foreign matter from furniture and furnishings, or to cleanse, sanitize, bleach, scour, polish, protect, or improve the appearance of surfaces.
C106	Laundry and dishwashing	Substances contained in laundry and dishwashing products, mixtures or manufactured items.
C107	Water treatment	Substances contained in water treatment products, mixtures or manufactured items that are designed to disinfect, reduce contaminants or other undesirable constituents, and condition or improve aesthetics of water. Excludes any substance contained in pest control products as defined under the Pest Control Products Act.
C108	Personal care and cosmetics	Substances contained in personal care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used for cleansing, grooming, improving or altering skin, hair, or teeth.
C109	Air care	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used to odorize or deodorize indoor air in homes, offices, motor vehicles, and other enclosed spaces.
C110	Apparel and footwear care	Substances contained in apparel and footwear care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are applied post-market.
C160	Pet care	Substances contained in pet care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used for cleansing, grooming, improving or altering skin, hair or teeth and intended for animal use.

PART 2

Substances used for construction, paint, electrical or metal
Application codes	Title	Description
C201	Adhesives and sealants	Substances contained in adhesive or sealant products or mixtures used to fasten other materials together or prevent the passage of liquid or gas.
C202.01	Paints and coatings (excluding thermal paper coating)	Substances contained in paints or coatings, excluding thermal paper coating.
C202.02	Paint thinners and removers	Substances contained in paint thinners and removers.
C203	Building or construction materials — Wood and engineered wood	Substances contained in building and construction materials made of wood and pressed or engineered wood products, mixtures or manufactured items.
C204	Building or construction materials not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in building and construction materials not otherwise covered in this table.
C205	Electrical and electronics	Substances contained in electrical and electronic products, mixtures or manufactured items.
C206	Metal materials not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in metal products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table.
C207	Batteries	Substances contained in non-rechargeable and rechargeable batteries including dry and wet cell units that store energy.

PART 3

Substances contained in packaging, paper, plastic or hobby materials
Application codes	Title	Description
C301.01	Food packaging material, single-serve, single-use or disposable	Substances contained in single-serve, single-use or disposable or multi-layered packaging or containers consisting of paper, plastic, metal, foil or other materials, which is intended to or may come in direct contact with food or beverage. Includes but is not limited to, single-serve/disposable bowls, plates, cups, other serving-ware, as well as food cans and lid liners.
C301.02	Reusable food and beverage container	Substances contained in reusable single- or multi-layered packaging or containers consisting of plastic, metal, rubber or other materials such as fabrics or textiles, which is intended to or may come in direct contact with food.
C302.01	Packaging (excluding food packaging), including paper articles	Substances contained in packaging products, mixtures or manufactured items, including paper packaging and excluding food packaging.
C302.02	Thermal paper	Substances contained in thermal paper and thermal paper coating such as point of sale receipts (e.g. cash registers, wireless payment terminals, ATMs, banks), labels (e.g. prescriptions, industrial barcodes, packaged items such as supermarket foods (e.g. deli meats, cheese, bulk items), retail shelf labels), tickets (e.g. airline, train, cinema, parking, theater, gaming, sporting events, amusement parks, arenas, museums, lottery) and laboratory printouts (e.g. ultrasound, electrocardiogram (EKG), printouts from other laboratory/medical recorders).
C302.03	Other paper articles	Substances contained in paper products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table.
C303.01	Plastic materials not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in plastic products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table.
C303.02	Rubber materials not otherwise covered in this table	Substances contained in rubber products, mixtures or manufactured items not otherwise covered in this table.
C304	Toys, playground and sporting equipment	Substances contained in toys, playground, and sporting equipment made of wood, metal, plastic or fabric.
C305	Arts, crafts and hobby materials	Substances contained in arts, crafts, and hobby materials.
C306	Ink, toner and colourants	Substances contained in ink, toners and colourants used for writing, printing, creating an image on paper; and substances contained in other substrates, or applied to substrates to change their colour or hide images.
C307	Photographic supplies, film and photo-chemicals	Substances contained in photographic supplies, film, photo-processing substances, and photographic paper.

PART 4

Substances used for automotive, fuel, agriculture or outdoor use
Application codes	Title	Description
C401	Automotive care	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items used in automotive cleaning and care of exterior and interior vehicle surfaces. This code does not include antifreeze, de-icing products, or lubricants.
C402	Lubricants and greases	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items to reduce friction, heat generation and wear between solid surfaces.
C403	Anti-freeze and de-icing	Substances added to fluids to reduce the freezing point of the mixture, or substances applied to surfaces to melt or prevent build-up of ice.
C404	Fuels and related products, mixtures or manufactured items	Substances burned to produce heat, light or power, or added to inhibit corrosion, provide lubrication, increase efficiency of use, or decrease production of undesirable by-products.
C405	Explosive materials	Substances capable of producing a sudden expansion, usually accompanied by the production of heat and large changes in pressure upon ignition.
C406	Agricultural products, mixtures or manufactured items (non-pesticidal)	Substances used to increase the productivity and quality of plants, animals or forestry crops produced on a commercial scale. Includes animal feed (any substance or mixture of substances for consumption by livestock, for providing the nutritional requirements of livestock, or for the purpose of preventing or correcting nutritional disorders of livestock, as defined in the Feeds Act and its regulations).
C407	Lawn and garden care	Substances contained in lawn, garden, outdoor or potted plant and tree care products, mixtures or manufactured items. Excludes any substance contained in pest control products as defined under the Pest Control Products Act.
C461	Pest control	Substances contained in any product, mixture or manufactured item for directly or indirectly controlling, preventing, destroying, mitigating, attracting, or repelling any pest.
C462	Automotive, aircraft and transportation	Substances contained in automobiles, aircraft and other types of transportation, or used in their manufacture.
C463	Oil and natural gas extraction	Substances that are, or are contained, in any mixtures, products or manufactured items, used for oil and natural gas drilling, extraction or processing.

PART 5

Substances contained in items for food, health or tobacco
Application codes	Title	Description
C562	Food and beverage	Substances contained in food and beverage products, mixtures or manufactured items.
C563	Drugs	Substances contained in prescription and non-prescription drugs intended for humans or animals.
C564	Natural health	Substances contained in natural health products, mixtures or manufactured items intended for humans or animals.
C565	Medical devices	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items used for either the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention of a disease, disorder, or an abnormal physical state; or those used in restoring, correcting or modifying organic functions in humans or animals.
C566	Tobacco products, mixtures or manufactured items	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items composed in whole or in part of tobacco, including tobacco leaves and any extract of tobacco leaves.

PART 6

Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items not described by other codes
Application codes	Title	Description
C999	Other	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are not described within any other application code.

EXPLANATORY NOTE

(This note is not part of the notice.)

This notice applies to 188 substances, including bisphenol A (BPA) and BPA structural analogues or functional alternatives that were identified for further consideration in a problem formulation process in the context of prioritization. The scope of the notice will allow the Government of Canada to capture critical information on commercial status, industrial processes (e.g. facility releases), and downstream use of BPA and BPA structural analogues and functional alternatives in Canada to inform further prioritization decisions or other risk assessment activities by Environment and Climate Change Canada and Health Canada as well as risk management, if needed.

Pursuant to subsection 71(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (hereinafter referred to as the “Act”), every person to whom this notice applies shall comply with this notice within the time specified in the notice. Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment, no later than March 16, 2022, using the online reporting system available through the Environment and Climate Change Canada (ECCC) Single Window. Inquiries concerning the notice may be directed to the Substances Management Information Line at 1‑800‑567‑1999 (toll-free in Canada), 819‑938‑3232 (outside of Canada) or Substances@ec.gc.ca.

Pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act, the Minister of the Environment may, on request in writing from any person to whom this notice applies, extend the time or times within which the person shall comply with this notice. The person seeking such extension shall submit, prior to the deadline, a request to the Minister of the Environment at the following email address: Substances@ec.gc.ca. The request should include the legal name of the party requiring an extension, the CAS RN of the substances for which the person will provide information, as well as the reason for the extension request.

Any person not subject to this notice, who has an interest in a substance set out in Schedule 1 to this notice, or who has involvement that does not meet the reporting criteria for this notice, may identify themselves by completing a Declaration of Stakeholder Interest. Additional information that is deemed beneficial can also be submitted through this declaration. Persons who do not meet the requirements of the notice and have no interest in the substances covered by this notice may submit a Declaration of Non-Engagement.

Compliance with the Act is mandatory, and specific offences are established by subsection 272.1(1) of the Act. Subsections 272.1(2), (3) and (4) of the Act set the penalties for persons who contravene section 71 of the Act. Offences include the offence of failing to comply with an obligation arising from the present notice and the offence of providing false or misleading information. Penalties include fines, and the amount of the fine can range from a maximum of $25,000 for an individual convicted following summary proceedings to a maximum of $500,000 for a large corporation convicted on indictment. The maximum fines are doubled for second or subsequent offences.

The current text of the Act, including the most recent amendments, is available on the Department of Justice website.

The Act is enforced in accordance with the Compliance and Enforcement Policy for the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999. Suspected violations under the Act can be reported to the Enforcement Branch by email at enviroinfo@ec.gc.ca.

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 43

Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 43 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71^{footnote a} and 4.9^{footnote b}, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)^{footnote c} and (b)^{footnote d} and section 7.7^{footnote e} of the Aeronautics Act^{footnote f};

And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)^{footnote g} of that Act, the Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;

Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1)^{footnote g} of the Aeronautics Act ^{footnote f}, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 43.

Ottawa, October 29, 2021

Omar Alghabra
Minister of Transport

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 43

Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

aerodrome property: means, in respect of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2, any air terminal buildings, restricted areas or facilities used for activities related to aircraft operations that are located at the aerodrome. (terrains de l’aérodrome)
aerodrome security personnel: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l’aérodrome)
air carrier: means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)
COVID-19: means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
COVID-19 molecular test: means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19)
foreign national: means a person who is not a Canadian citizen or a permanent resident and includes a stateless person. (étranger)
non-passenger screening checkpoint: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)
passenger screening checkpoint: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)
peace officer: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)
Regulations: means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)
restricted area: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)
screening authority: means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (administration de contrôle)
screening officer,: except in section 2, has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)

Interpretation

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Conflict

(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.

Definition of face mask

(4) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a face mask means any mask, including a non-medical mask that meets all of the following requirements:

(a) it is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen;
(b) it completely covers a person’s nose, mouth and chin without gaping;
(c) it can be secured to a person’s head with ties or ear loops.

Face masks — lip reading

(5) Despite paragraph (4)(a), the portion of a face mask in front of a wearer’s lips may be made of transparent material that permits lip reading if

(a) the rest of the face mask is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen; and
(b) there is a tight seal between the transparent material and the rest of the face mask.

Definition of fully vaccinated person

(6) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a fully vaccinated person means a person who completed, at least 14 days before the day on which they access aerodrome property or a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen if

(a) in the case of a vaccine dosage regimen that uses a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada,
- (i) the vaccine has been administered to the person in accordance with its labelling, or
- (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer appointed under subsection 6(1) of the Public Health Agency of Canada Act, that the regimen is suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19; or
(b) in all other cases,
- (i) the vaccines of the regimen are authorized for sale in Canada or in another jurisdiction, and
- (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer appointed under subsection 6(1) of the Public Health Agency of Canada Act, that the vaccines and the regimen are suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen and the vaccines in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19.

Interpretation — fully vaccinated person

(7) For greater certainty, for the purposes of the definition fully vaccinated person in subsection (6), a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada does not include a similar vaccine sold by the same manufacturer that has been authorized for sale in another jurisdiction.

Notification

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to measures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

Suitable quarantine plan

(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, a suitable quarantine plan or, if the person is not required under that order to provide the plan and the evidence, their contact information. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.

Vaccination

(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft or before entering Canada, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, information related to their COVID-19 vaccination and evidence of COVID-19 vaccination. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be denied permission to board the aircraft and may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.

False confirmation

(4) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Definitions

(5) The following definitions apply in this section.

quarantine officer: means a person designated as a quarantine officer under subsection 5(2) of the Quarantine Act. (agent de quarantaine)
screening officer: has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Quarantine Act. (agent de contrôle)

Confirmation

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

False confirmation

(2) A person must not provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(3) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.

Prohibition

4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1).

Foreign Nationals

Prohibition

5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.

Exception

6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act.

Health Check

Non-application

7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:

(a) a crew member;
(b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

Health check

8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:

(a) a fever;
(b) a cough;
(c) breathing difficulties.

Notification

(2) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may be denied permission to board the aircraft if

(a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
(b) they have, or suspect that they have, COVID-19;
(c) they have been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
(d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

Confirmation

(3) Every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates must confirm to the private operator or air carrier that none of the following situations apply to them:

(a) the person has, or suspects that they have, COVID-19;
(b) the person has been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19;
(c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, the person is the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

False confirmation — obligation of private operator or air carrier

(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide answers, with respect to the health check or a confirmation, that they know to be false or misleading.

False confirmation — obligations of person

(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to provide a confirmation must

(a) answer all questions; and
(b) not provide answers or a confirmation that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(6) A competent adult may answer all questions and provide a confirmation on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to give a confirmation.

Observations — private operator or air carrier

(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).

Prohibition

9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

(a) the person’s answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
(b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as the person is boarding, they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
(c) the person’s confirmation under subsection 8(3) indicates that one of the situations described in paragraphs 8(3)(a), (b) or (c) applies to that person; or
(d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or to give the confirmation under subsection 8(3).

Period of 14 days

10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada

Application

11 (1) Sections 12 to 17 apply to a private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.

Non-application

(2) Sections 12 to 17 do not apply to persons who are not required under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Notification

12 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may be denied permission to board the aircraft if they are unable to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Evidence — result of test

13 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence that they received either

(a) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected no more than 72 hours before the aircraft’s initial scheduled departure time; or
(b) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen collected at least 14 days and no more than 180 days before the aircraft’s initial scheduled departure time.

Evidence — location of test

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the COVID-19 molecular test must have been performed in a country or territory that is not listed in Schedule 1.

Evidence — elements

14 Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include

(a) the person’s name and date of birth;
(b) the name and civic address of the laboratory that administered the test;
(c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
(d) the test result.

False or misleading evidence

15 A person must not provide evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister

16 A private operator or air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person’s name and contact information and the date and number of the person’s flight.

Prohibition

17 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if the person does not provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test in accordance with the requirements set out in section 13.

Vaccination or COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights Departing from an Aerodrome in Canada

Application

17.1 (1) Beginning on October 30, 2021 at 3:00:59 a.m. Eastern daylight time, sections 17.2 to 17.17 apply to all of the following persons:

(a) a person boarding an aircraft for a flight that an air carrier operates departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
(b) a person entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2 from a non-restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight that an air carrier operates;
(c) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
(d) a screening authority at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2.

Non-application

(2) Sections 17.2 to 17.17 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than 12 years and four months of age;
(b) a crew member;
(c) a person who arrives at an aerodrome from any other country on board an aircraft in order to transit to another country and remains in a sterile transit area, as defined in section 2 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations, of the aerodrome until they leave Canada;
(d) a person who arrives at an aerodrome on board an aircraft following the diversion of their flight for a safety-related reason, such as adverse weather or an equipment malfunction, and who boards an aircraft for a flight not more than 24 hours after the arrival time of the diverted flight.

Notification

17.2 An air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they

(a) are prohibited from boarding the aircraft unless they are a fully vaccinated person, have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test or are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b);
(b) will be required to confirm to the air carrier that they are a fully vaccinated person, have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test or are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b);
(c) may be required to provide to the air carrier evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are a fully vaccinated person, evidence that they have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test or evidence that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b);
(d) may be denied permission to board the aircraft if a requirement referred to in paragraph (b) or (c) applies to them and they fail to comply with it, and, in the case of the requirement referred to in paragraph (c), may be denied permission to board any other aircraft for a flight departing from Canada for a period of 72 hours after the first denial; and
(e) may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in section 17.3 that they know to be false or misleading.

Confirmation

17.3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they

(a) are a fully vaccinated person;
(b) have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test; or
(c) are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b).

Exception

(2) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.

Exception — person less than 16 years of age

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who is less than 16 years of age and who is travelling alone.

Prohibition — person

17.4 (1) A person is prohibited from boarding an aircraft for a flight or entering a restricted area unless

(a) they are a fully vaccinated person; or
(b) they have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Exception

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who

(a) is boarding the aircraft for a flight to an aerodrome in Canada if the initial scheduled departure time of that flight is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of a flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country; or
(b) is boarding the aircraft for a flight
- (i) only to become a crew member on board another aircraft that an air carrier operates under Subpart 1 of Part VII of the Regulations,
- (ii) after having been a crew member on board an aircraft that an air carrier operates under Subpart 1 of Part VII of the Regulations, or
- (iii) to participate in mandatory training required by an air carrier that operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1 of Part VII of the Regulations in relation to the operation of an aircraft, if the person will be required to return to work as a crew member.

Request for evidence — air carrier

17.5 (1) Before permitting a certain number of persons, as specified by the Minister and selected on a random basis, to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates, the air carrier must request that each of those persons provide

(a) evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are a fully vaccinated person;
(b) evidence that they have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test; or
(c) evidence that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b).

Person less than 16 years of age

(2) An air carrier must request that every person described in subsection 17.3(3) provide, before they board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates, the evidence referred to in paragraph (1)(a), (b) or (c).

Request for evidence — screening authority

17.6 Before permitting a certain number of persons, as specified by the Minister and selected on a random basis, to enter a restricted area, the screening authority must request that each of those persons, when they present themselves for screening at a passenger screening checkpoint, provide the evidence referred to in paragraph 17.5(1)(a), (b) or (c).

Provision of evidence

17.7 A person must, at the request of an air carrier or a screening authority, provide to the air carrier or screening authority the evidence referred to in paragraph 17.5(1)(a), (b) or (c).

Evidence of vaccination — elements

17.8 (1) Evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be evidence issued by the government or the non-governmental entity that is authorized to issue it in the jurisdiction in which the vaccine was administered and must contain the following information:

(a) the name of the person who received the vaccine;
(b) the name of the government or of the non-governmental entity;
(c) the brand name or any other information that identifies the vaccine that was administered; and
(d) the dates on which the vaccine was administered or, if the evidence is one document issued for both doses and the document specifies only the date on which the most recent dose was administered, that date.

Evidence of vaccination — translation

(2) The evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be in English or French and any translation into English or French must be a certified translation.

Evidence of COVID-19 molecular test — result

17.9 (1) A result for a COVID-19 molecular test is a result described in paragraph 13(1)(a) or (b).

Evidence of COVID-19 molecular test — elements

(2) Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include the elements set out in paragraphs 14(a) to (d).

Evidence — persons referred to in subsection 17.4(2)

17.10 Evidence that the person is a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(a) or (b) means

(a) in the case of paragraph 17.4(2)(a), a travel itinerary or boarding pass that confirms that the initial scheduled departure time of the person’s flight to an aerodrome in Canada is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of a flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country; and
(b) in the case of paragraph 17.4(2)(b),
- (i) a statement from the person that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(b) if they provide a piece of identification issued by the air carrier or if they are in uniform, or
- (ii) a document from the air carrier demonstrating that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.4(2)(b).

False or misleading confirmation or evidence

17.11 A person must not provide a confirmation or evidence that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister

17.12 An air carrier or screening authority that has reason to believe that a person has provided a confirmation or evidence that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister of the person’s name and contact information and the date and number of the person’s flight not more than 72 hours after the provision of the confirmation or evidence.

Prohibition — air carrier

17.13 (1) An air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates if

(a) the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under section 17.3; or
(b) the person does not provide the evidence they are required to provide under section 17.7.

Notification to person

(2) An air carrier that denies a person permission to board an aircraft under paragraph (1)(b) must notify the person that

(a) they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight departing from Canada for a period of 72 hours after the denial; and
(b) the Minister will be informed of the denial.

Prohibition — screening authority

17.14 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person to enter a restricted area if the person does not provide the evidence they are required to provide under section 17.7.

Notification to person

(2) A screening authority that denies a person entry to a restricted area under subsection (1) must notify the person that

(a) they are not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 72 hours after the denial; and
(b) the Minister will be informed of the denial.

Notification to air carrier

(3) If a screening authority denies a person entry to a restricted area, the screening authority must notify the air carrier operating the flight that the person has been denied entry and provide the person’s name and flight number to the air carrier.

Air carrier requirements

(4) An air carrier that has been notified under subsection (3) must ensure that the person is escorted to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, as defined in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, if applicable.

Prohibition — boarding an aircraft

17.15 (1) A person who is denied permission to board an aircraft under paragraph 17.13(1)(b) is not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight departing from Canada for a period of 72 hours after the denial.

Prohibition — entry to restricted area

(2) A person who is denied entry to a restricted area under subsection 17.14(1) is not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 72 hours after the denial.

Record keeping — air carrier

17.16 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information in respect of each instance that a person was denied permission to board an aircraft under paragraph 17.13(1)(b):

(a) the person’s name, date of birth and contact information, including the person’s home address, telephone number and email address;
(b) the date and flight number; and
(c) the reason why the person was denied permission to board the aircraft.

Informing Minister

(2) The air carrier must inform the Minister of any record referred to in subsection (1) not more than 72 hours after it is created.

Retention period

(3) The air carrier must retain a record referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 12 months after the date of the flight.

Ministerial request

(4) The air carrier must make a record referred to in subsection (1) available to the Minister on request.

Record keeping — screening authority

17.17 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information in respect of each instance that a person was denied entry to a restricted area under subsection 17.14(1):

(a) the person’s name;
(b) the date and flight number; and
(c) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.

Informing Minister

(2) The screening authority must inform the Minister of any record referred to in subsection (1) not more than 72 hours after it is created.

Retention period

(3) The screening authority must retain a record referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 12 months after the day on which the record is created.

Ministerial request

(4) The screening authority must make a record referred to in subsection (1) available to the Minister on request.

[17.18 to 17.49 reserved]

Policy Respecting Mandatory Vaccination

Application

17.50 Beginning on October 30, 2021 at 3:00:59 a.m. Eastern daylight time, sections 17.51 to 17.55 apply to

(a) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
(b) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2, other than an air carrier that operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1 of Part VII of the Regulations; and
(c) NAV CANADA.

Definition of relevant person

17.51 (1) For the purposes of sections 17.52 to 17.55, relevant person means, in respect of an entity referred to in section 17.50, a person whose duties involve an activity described in subsection (2) and who is

(a) an employee of the entity;
(b) an employee of the entity’s contractor, agent or mandatary;
(c) a person hired by the entity to provide a service;
(d) the entity’s lessee or an employee of the entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property; or
(e) a person permitted by the entity to access aerodrome property or, in the case of NAV CANADA, a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services.

Activities

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the activities are

(a) conducting or directly supporting activities that are related to commercial flight operations — such as aircraft refuelling services, aircraft maintenance and repair services, baggage handling services, supply services for the operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA, runway and taxiway maintenance services or de-icing services — and that take place on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services;
(b) interacting in-person on aerodrome property with a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight;
(c) engaging in tasks, on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, that are intended to reduce the risk of transmission of the virus that causes COVID-19; and
(d) accessing a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2.

Comprehensive policy — operators of aerodromes

17.52 (1) The operator of an aerodrome must establish and implement a comprehensive policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with subsection (2).

Policy — content

(2) The policy must

(a) subject to paragraph (b), require that as of November 15, 2021, a person who is 12 years and four months of age or older, other than a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight, be a fully vaccinated person before accessing aerodrome property;
(b) provide for a procedure for granting an exemption to a person referred to in paragraph (a) from the requirement to be a fully vaccinated person if the person
- (i) has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious beliefs, or
- (ii) received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before November 15, 2021;
(c) provide for a procedure for issuing a document to a person who has been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph (b) that confirms the granting of the exemption;
(d) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person who has been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph (b) is tested for COVID-19 at least twice every week;
(e) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 test, other than a COVID-19 molecular test, under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) receives a result for a COVID-19 molecular test;
(f) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 molecular test under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) or (e) is prohibited from accessing aerodrome property for a period of 14 days after the result was received or until the person is not exhibiting any of the symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1), whichever is later; and
(g) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person referred to in paragraph (f) is exempt from the requirement referred to in paragraph (d) for a period of 180 days after the person received a positive result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Medical contraindication

(3) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a person on the basis of a medical contraindication only if the person provides a medical certificate from a medical doctor or nurse practitioner certifying that the person cannot be vaccinated due to a medical condition.

Canadian Human Rights Act

(4) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome or a person hired by the operator of an aerodrome to provide a service, the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a person on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if the operator of the aerodrome is obligated to accommodate them on the basis of this ground under the Canadian Human Rights Act by providing such an exemption.

Applicable legislation

(5) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), in the following cases, the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a person on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if they would be entitled to such an exemption as an accommodation on the basis of this ground under applicable legislation:

(a) in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome’s contractor, agent or mandatary; and
(b) in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Comprehensive policy — air carriers and NAV CANADA

17.53 Section 17.54 does not apply to an air carrier or NAV CANADA if that entity

(a) establishes and implements a comprehensive policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with paragraphs 17.54(2)(a) to (g) and subsections 17.54(3) to (5); and
(b) has procedures in place to ensure that while a relevant person is carrying out their duties related to commercial flight operations, no in-person interactions occur between the relevant person and an unvaccinated person who has not been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph 17.54(2)(b) and who is
- (i) an employee of the entity,
- (ii) an employee of the entity’s contractor, agent or mandatary,
- (iii) a person hired by the entity to provide a service, or
- (iv) the entity’s lessee or an employee of the entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Targeted policy — air carriers and NAV CANADA

17.54 (1) An air carrier or NAV CANADA must establish and implement a targeted policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with subsection (2).

Policy — content

(2) The policy must

(a) subject to paragraph (b), require that as of November 15, 2021, a relevant person be a fully vaccinated person before accessing aerodrome property or, in the case of NAV CANADA, a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services;
(b) provide for a procedure for granting an exemption to a relevant person from the requirement to be a fully vaccinated person if the relevant person
- (i) has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious beliefs, or
- (ii) received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before November 15, 2021;
(c) provide for a procedure for issuing a document to a relevant person who has been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph (b) that confirms the granting of the exemption;
(d) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person who has been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph (b) is tested for COVID-19 at least twice every week;
(e) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 test, other than a COVID-19 molecular test, under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) receives a result for a COVID-19 molecular test;
(f) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 molecular test under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) or (e) is prohibited from accessing aerodrome property for a period of 14 days after the result was received or until the relevant person is not exhibiting any of the symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1), whichever is later;
(g) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person referred to in paragraph (f) is exempt from the requirement referred to in paragraph (d) for a period of 180 days after the relevant person received a positive result for a COVID-19 molecular test;
(h) set out procedures for reducing the risk that a relevant person will be exposed to the virus that causes COVID-19 due to an in-person interaction occurring on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services with an unvaccinated person who has not been granted an exemption under paragraph (b) and who is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.53(b)(i), (ii), (iii) or (iv), which may include protocols related to
- (i) the vaccination of persons, other than relevant persons, who access aerodrome property or a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services,
- (ii) physical distancing and the wearing of face masks, and
- (iii) reducing the frequency and duration of in-person interactions;
(i) establish a procedure for collecting the following information with respect to an in-person interaction related to commercial flight operations between a relevant person and a person referred to in subparagraph 17.53(b)(i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) who is unvaccinated and has not been granted an exemption under paragraph (b) or whose vaccination status is unknown:
- (i) the time, date and location of the interaction, and
- (ii) contact information for the relevant person and the other person;
(j) establish a procedure for recording the following information and submitting it to the Minister on request:
- (i) the number of relevant persons who are subject to the entity’s policy,
- (ii) the number of relevant persons who require access to a restricted area,
- (iii) the number of relevant persons who
  - (A) are fully vaccinated persons,
  - (B) have received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen, and
  - (C) are unvaccinated persons,
- (iv) the number of hours during which relevant persons were unable to fulfill their duties related to commercial flight operations due to COVID-19,
- (v) the number of relevant persons who have been granted an exemption referred to in paragraph (b), the reason for granting the exemption and a confirmation that the relevant persons have submitted evidence of COVID-19 tests in accordance with the requirements referred to in paragraphs (d) and (e),
- (vi) the number of relevant persons who refuse to comply with a requirement referred to in paragraph (a), (d), (e) or (f),
- (vii) the number of relevant persons who were denied entry to a restricted area because of a refusal to comply with a requirement referred to in paragraph (a), (d), (e) or (f),
- (viii) the number of persons referred to in subparagraphs 17.53(b)(i) to (iv) who are unvaccinated and who have not been granted an exemption under paragraph (b), or whose vaccination status is unknown, who have an in-person interaction related to commercial flight operations with a relevant person and a description of any procedures implemented to reduce the risk that a relevant person will be exposed to the virus that causes COVID-19 due to such an interaction, and
- (ix) the number of instances in which the air carrier or NAV Canada is made aware that a person with respect to whom information was collected under paragraph (i) received a positive result for a COVID-19 test, the number of relevant persons tested for COVID-19 as a result of this information, the results of those tests and a description of any impacts on commercial flight operations; and
(k) require the air carrier or NAV CANADA, as applicable, to keep the information referred to in paragraph (j) for a period of at least 12 months after the date that the information was recorded.

Medical contraindication

(3) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a relevant person on the basis of a medical contraindication only if the relevant person provides a medical certificate from a medical doctor or nurse practitioner certifying that the relevant person cannot be vaccinated due to a medical condition.

Canadian Human Rights Act

(4) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), in the case of an employee of an entity or a person hired by an entity to provide a service, the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a relevant person on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if the entity is obligated to accommodate the relevant person on the basis of this ground under the Canadian Human Rights Act by providing such an exemption.

Applicable legislation

(5) For the purposes of subparagraph (2)(b)(i), in the following cases, the policy must provide that an exemption is to be granted to a relevant person on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if they would be entitled to such an exemption as an accommodation on the basis of this ground under applicable legislation:

(a) in the case of an employee of an entity’s contractor, agent or mandatary; and
(b) in the case of an employee of an entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Ministerial request — policy

17.55 (1) The operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA must make a copy of the policy referred to in section 17.52, 17.53 or 17.54, as applicable, available to the Minister on request.

Ministerial request — implementation

(2) The operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA must make information related to the implementation of the policy referred to in section 17.52, 17.53 or 17.54, as applicable, available to the Minister on request.

Face Masks

Non-application

18 (1) Sections 19 to 24 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a crew member;
(g) a gate agent.

Face mask readily available

(2) An adult responsible for a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age must ensure that a face mask is readily available to the child before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of face mask

(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 21 and complies with any instructions given by a gate agent under section 22 if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Notification

19 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person must

(a) be in possession of a face mask before boarding;
(b) wear the face mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building; and
(c) comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Obligation to possess face mask

20 Every person who is at least six years of age must be in possession of a face mask before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of face mask — persons

21 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — person

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
(b) when the person is drinking or eating, unless a crew member instructs the person to wear a face mask;
(c) when the person is taking oral medications;
(d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person’s special needs; or
(e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to verify the person’s identity.

Exceptions — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:

(a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
(b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
(c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
(d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
(e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.

Compliance

22 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Prohibition — private operator or air carrier

23 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

(a) the person is not in possession of a face mask; or
(b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Refusal to comply

24 (1) If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask, the private operator or air carrier must

(a) keep a record of
- (i) the date and flight number,
- (ii) the person’s name, date of birth and contact information, including the person’s home address, telephone number and email address,
- (iii) the person’s seat number, and
- (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
(b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).

Retention period

(2) The private operator or air carrier must retain a record referred to in paragraph (1)(a) for a period of at least 12 months after the date of the flight.

Ministerial request

(3) The private operator or air carrier must make a record referred to in paragraph (1)(a) available to the Minister on request.

Wearing of face mask — crew member

25 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — crew member

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
(b) when the wearing of a face mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
(c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.

Wearing of face mask — gate agent

26 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a face mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
(b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is separated from any other person by a physical barrier that allows the gate agent and the other person to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Deplaning

Non-application

27 (1) Section 28 does not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.

Wearing of face mask

(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 28 if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Wearing of face mask — person

28 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a face mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building, including by a passenger loading bridge.

Screening Authority

Non-application

29 (1) Sections 30 to 33 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
(g) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.

Wearing of face mask

(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under subsection 30(2) and removes it when required by a screening officer to do so under subsection 30(3) if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint

30 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a face mask at all times during screening.

Wearing of face mask — person

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a face mask at all times during screening.

Requirement to remove face mask

(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their face mask during screening must do so.

Wearing of face mask — screening officer

(4) A screening officer must wear a face mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.

Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint

31 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a face mask at all times.

Wearing of face mask — screening officer

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a face mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.

Exceptions

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
(b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

32 Sections 30 and 31 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint

33 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a face mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint

(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a face mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Designated Provisions

Designation

34 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 3 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.

Maximum amounts

(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 3 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.

Notice

(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify

(a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
(b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
(c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
(d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
(e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.

Repeal

35 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 42, made on October 19, 2021, is repealed.

SCHEDULE 1

(Subsection 13(2))

Countries and Territories
Item	Name
1	India
2	Morocco

SCHEDULE 2

(Subsections 1(1) and 17.1(1) and paragraphs 17.50(a) and (b) and 17.51(2)(d))

Aerodromes
Name	ICAO Location Indicator
Abbotsford International	CYXX
Alma	CYTF
Bagotville	CYBG
Baie-Comeau	CYBC
Bathurst	CZBF
Brandon Municipal	CYBR
Calgary International	CYYC
Campbell River	CYBL
Castlegar (West Kootenay Regional)	CYCG
Charlo	CYCL
Charlottetown	CYYG
Chibougamau/Chapais	CYMT
Churchill Falls	CZUM
Comox	CYQQ
Cranbrook (Canadian Rockies International)	CYXC
Dawson Creek	CYDQ
Deer Lake	CYDF
Edmonton International	CYEG
Fort McMurray	CYMM
Fort St. John	CYXJ
Fredericton International	CYFC
Gander International	CYQX
Gaspé	CYGP
Goose Bay	CYYR
Grande Prairie	CYQU
Greater Moncton International	CYQM
Halifax (Robert L. Stanfield International)	CYHZ
Hamilton (John C. Munro International)	CYHM
Îles-de-la-Madeleine	CYGR
Iqaluit	CYFB
Kamloops	CYKA
Kelowna	CYLW
Kingston	CYGK
Kitchener/Waterloo Regional	CYKF
La Grande Rivière	CYGL
Lethbridge	CYQL
Lloydminster	CYLL
London	CYXU
Lourdes-de-Blanc-Sablon	CYBX
Medicine Hat	CYXH
Mont-Joli	CYYY
Montréal (Montréal — Pierre Elliott Trudeau International)	CYUL
Nanaimo	CYCD
North Bay	CYYB
Ottawa (Macdonald-Cartier International)	CYOW
Penticton	CYYF
Prince Albert (Glass Field)	CYPA
Prince George	CYXS
Prince Rupert	CYPR
Québec (Jean Lesage International)	CYQB
Quesnel	CYQZ
Red Deer Regional	CYQF
Regina International	CYQR
Rivière-Rouge/Mont-Tremblant International	CYFJ
Rouyn-Noranda	CYUY
Saint John	CYSJ
Sarnia (Chris Hadfield)	CYZR
Saskatoon (John G. Diefenbaker International)	CYXE
Sault Ste. Marie	CYAM
Sept-Îles	CYZV
Smithers	CYYD
St. Anthony	CYAY
St. John’s International	CYYT
Stephenville	CYJT
Sudbury	CYSB
Sydney (J.A. Douglas McCurdy)	CYQY
Terrace	CYXT
Thompson	CYTH
Thunder Bay	CYQT
Timmins (Victor M. Power)	CYTS
Toronto (Billy Bishop Toronto City)	CYTZ
Toronto (Lester B. Pearson International)	CYYZ
Toronto/Buttonville Municipal	CYKZ
Val-d’Or	CYVO
Vancouver International	CYVR
Victoria International	CYYJ
Wabush	CYWK
Whitehorse (Erik Nielsen International)	CYXY
Williams Lake	CYWL
Windsor	CYQG
Winnipeg (James Armstrong Richardson International)	CYWG
Yellowknife	CYZF

SCHEDULE 3

(Subsections 34(1) and (2))

Designated Provisions
Column 1 Designated Provision	Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($)
Column 1 Designated Provision	Individual	Corporation
Subsection 2(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(4)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 3(1)	5,000
Subsection 3(2)	5,000
Section 4	5,000	25,000
Section 5	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(3)	5,000
Subsection 8(4)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(5)	5,000
Subsection 8(7)	5,000	25,000
Section 9	5,000	25,000
Section 10	5,000
Section 12	5,000	25,000
Subsection 13(1)	5,000
Section 15	5,000
Section 16	5,000	25,000
Section 17	5,000	25,000
Section 17.2		25,000
Subsection 17.3(1)	5,000
Subsection 17.4(1)	5,000
Subsection 17.5(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.5(2)		25,000
Section 17.6		25,000
Section 17.7	5,000
Section 17.11	5,000
Section 17.12		25,000
Subsection 17.13(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.13(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.14(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.14(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.14(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.14(4)		25,000
Subsection 17.15(1)	5,000
Subsection 17.15(2)	5,000
Subsection 17.16(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.16(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.16(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.16(4)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(4)		25,000
Section 17.52		25,000
Section 17.54		25,000
Subsection 17.55(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.55(2)		25,000
Subsection 18(2)	5,000
Subsection 18(3)	5,000
Section 19	5,000	25,000
Section 20	5,000
Subsection 21(1)	5,000	25,000
Section 22	5,000
Section 23	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 25(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 26(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 27(2)	5,000
Section 28	5,000
Subsection 29(2)	5,000
Subsection 30(1)		25,000
Subsection 30(2)	5,000
Subsection 30(3)	5,000
Subsection 30(4)	5,000
Subsection 31(1)	5,000
Subsection 31(2)	5,000
Subsection 33(1)		25,000
Subsection 33(2)		25,000

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

CANADA SHIPPING ACT, 2001

Interim Order No. 7 Respecting Passenger Vessel Restrictions Due to the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19)

Whereas the Minister of Transport believes that the annexed Interim Order No. 7 Respecting Passenger Vessel Restrictions Due to the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) is required to deal with a direct or indirect risk to marine safety or to the marine environment;

And whereas the provisions of the annexed Interim Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to subsection 120(1)^{footnote h} and paragraphs 136(1)(f)^{footnote i} and (h)^{footnote i} of the Canada Shipping Act, 2001^{footnote j};

Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 10.1(1)^{footnote k} of the Canada Shipping Act, 2001 ^{footnote j}, makes the annexed Interim Order No. 7 Respecting Passenger Vessel Restrictions Due to the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19).

Ottawa, October 30, 2021

Omar Alghabra
Minister of Transport

Interim Order No. 7 Respecting Passenger Vessel Restrictions Due to the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19)

Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

COVID-19: means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
COVID-19 molecular test: means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19)
cruise ship: means any passenger vessel, other than a ferry vessel or a passenger vessel that provides essential services, whose passengers are scheduled to be on board for 24 hours or more. (navire de croisière)
ferry vessel: means any vessel, having provision for deck passengers and for vehicles, that is operated on a short run on a schedule between two points over the most direct water route and offers a public service of a type normally attributed to a bridge or tunnel. (transbordeur)
Minister: means the Minister of Transport. (ministre)
passenger vessel: means a vessel, other than a ferry vessel, that is certified to carry more than 12 passengers as indicated on its inspection certificate or Passenger Ship Safety Certificate issued under the Vessel Safety Certificates Regulations or on an equivalent certificate issued by a foreign government. (bâtiment à passagers)
passenger vessel that provides essential services: means a passenger vessel that is set out in the schedule. (bâtiment à passagers qui fournit des services essentiels)
pilot: has the same meaning as in section 1.1 of the Pilotage Act. (pilote)

Interpretation — fully vaccinated

(2) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a person is fully vaccinated at least 14 days after the day on which they complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen if

(a) in the case of a vaccine dosage regimen that uses a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada,
- (i) the vaccine has been administered to the person in accordance with its labelling, or
- (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer appointed under subsection 6(1) of the Public Health Agency of Canada Act, that the regimen is suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19; or
(b) in all other cases,
- (i) the vaccines of the regimen are authorized for sale in Canada or in another jurisdiction, and
- (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer appointed under subsection 6(1) of the Public Health Agency of Canada Act, that the vaccines and the regimen are suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen and the vaccines in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19.

For greater certainty

(3) For greater certainty, for the purposes of subsection (2), a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada does not include a similar vaccine sold by the same manufacturer that has been authorized for sale in another jurisdiction.

Canadian Vessels

Prohibition

2 (1) Beginning on November 1, 2021, it is prohibited for a Canadian vessel, other than a cruise ship, that is operated with 12 or more crew members on board to be operated in any waters, unless the vessel’s authorized representative

(a) has implemented a vaccination policy in accordance with the requirements set out in subsection 9(1);
(b) verifies, subject to subsection (3),
- (i) beginning on November 15, 2021, that every person on board the vessel received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding, and
- (ii) beginning on January 24, 2022, that every person on board the vessel is fully vaccinated; and
(c) verifies, beginning on November 15, 2021, that every person on board the vessel who is not fully vaccinated, other than a passenger or a pilot, has received their results of a test referred to in subsection 3(4) or 3(4.1), as applicable, before boarding.

Prohibition — other vessels

(2) Subsection (1) also applies in respect of any other Canadian vessel, other than a cruise ship, of an authorized representative who is also the authorized representative of a cruise ship that is a Canadian vessel or of any other Canadian vessel that is operated with 12 or more crew members on board.

Exception

(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the reference to “person” does not include

(a) a passenger;
(b) a pilot; or
(c) a person whose reason for not completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen has been verified by an authorized representative under subsection 3(2).

Evidence of vaccination

3 (1) It is prohibited for a person, other than a person who intends to be a passenger or who is a pilot, to board a Canadian vessel referred to in section 2 that is in Canadian waters unless the person provides to the vessel’s authorized representative,

(a) beginning on November 15, 2021, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they have received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding; and
(b) beginning on January 24, 2022, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are fully vaccinated.

Verification

(2) Despite subsection (1), a person referred to in that subsection may board the vessel if the authorized representative has verified that the person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen for one of the following reasons:

(a) the person has a medical contraindication that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen; or
(b) the person has a sincerely held religious belief that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen.

Evidence

(3) A person who relies on a reason referred to in paragraph (2)(a) or (b) must provide to the authorized representative evidence of their medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief.

COVID-19 test result

(4) Beginning on November 15, 2021, a person who is not fully vaccinated, other than a person who intends to be a passenger or who is a pilot, must, before boarding the vessel, provide to the vessel’s authorized representative evidence that they received

(a) a negative result for a COVID-19 test that was performed on a specimen collected from the person no more than 72 hours before the person boards the vessel; or
(b) a positive result for a COVID-19 test that was performed on a specimen collected from the person at least 14 days and no more than 180 days before the person boards the vessel.

Prohibition

(4.1) A person who is not fully vaccinated, other than a person who intends to be a passenger or who is a pilot, who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 test must not board the vessel for a period of 14 days after the day on which the specimen on which the test was performed was collected, unless they receive a negative result from a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected from the person no more than 72 hours before the person boards the vessel.

Evidence — elements

(5) For the purposes of this Interim Order, evidence of a result for a COVID-19 test must include

(a) the person’s name and date of birth;
(b) the name and civic address of the location at which the test was carried out;
(c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
(d) the test result.

Continued testing

(6) Any person who provides evidence of a result referred to in paragraph (4)(a) must be tested for COVID-19 in accordance with the authorized representative’s vaccination policy every three days for the duration of the vessel’s voyage if that voyage is scheduled to last six days or more.

Pilots

Prohibition

4 (1) It is prohibited for any vessel that is operated in Canadian waters to have a pilot on board unless the vessel’s authorized representative verifies,

(a) beginning on November 15, 2021, that the pilot
- (i) received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding; or
- (ii) has received their results of a test referred to in subsection 3(4) or 3(4.1), as applicable, before boarding, if the pilot is not fully vaccinated; and
(b) beginning on January 24, 2022, that the pilot is fully vaccinated.

Verification

(2) Despite subsection (1), a vessel referred to in that subsection that is operated in Canadian waters may have on board a pilot who is not fully vaccinated if the vessel’s authorized representative verifies that the pilot has a document confirming that the pilotage authority that employs the pilot or that has a contract with the pilot or with a body corporate of which the pilot is a member or shareholder has verified that the pilot has provided evidence that they have not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen for a reason referred to in subsection 5(2).

Prohibition

5 (1) It is prohibited for a pilot to board a Canadian or foreign vessel that is operated in Canadian waters unless the pilot provides to the vessel’s authorized representative,

(a) beginning on November 15, 2021, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they have received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding; and
(b) beginning on January 24, 2022, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are fully vaccinated.

Verification

(2) Despite subsection (1), a pilot referred to in that subsection may board the vessel if the pilotage authority that employs the pilot or that has a contract with the pilot or with a body corporate of which the pilot is a member or shareholder has verified that the pilot has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen for one of the following reasons:

(a) the pilot has a medical contraindication that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen; or
(b) the pilot has a sincerely held religious belief that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen.

Evidence

(3) A pilot who relies on a reason referred to in paragraph (2)(a) or (b) must provide to the pilotage authority evidence of their medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief.

COVID-19 test result

(4) Beginning on November 15, 2021, before boarding the vessel, a pilot who is not fully vaccinated must provide to the vessel’s authorized representative evidence that they received their results of a test referred to in subsection 3(4) or 3(4.1), as applicable.

Cruise Ships

Prohibition

6 (1) Beginning on November 1, 2021, it is prohibited for a cruise ship that is a Canadian vessel to be operated in any waters, and for a cruise ship that is a foreign vessel to be operated in Canadian waters, unless the cruise ship’s authorized representative

(a) in the case of a cruise ship that is a Canadian vessel, has implemented a vaccination policy in accordance with the requirements set out in subsection 9(1);
(b) verifies, subject to subsection (2),
- (i) beginning on November 15, 2021, that every person on board the cruise ship received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding, and
- (ii) beginning on January 24, 2022, that every person on board the cruise ship is fully vaccinated;
(c) verifies, beginning on November 15, 2021, that every person on board the cruise ship who is not fully vaccinated, other than a passenger or a pilot, has received their result of a test referred to in subsection 3(4) or 3(4.1), as applicable, before boarding; and
(d) in the case of a cruise ship that is a foreign vessel, notifies the Minister of the date when the cruise ship is scheduled to arrive in Canadian waters at least 60 days before that date.

Exception

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the reference to “person” does not include

(a) a passenger;
(b) a pilot; or
(c) a person whose reason for not completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen has been verified by an authorized representative under subsection 7(2).

Evidence of vaccination

7 (1) It is prohibited for any person, other than a passenger or a pilot, to be on board a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is in Canadian waters unless the person has provided to the cruise ship’s authorized representative,

(a) beginning on November 15, 2021, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they have received the first dose of a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen before boarding; and
(b) beginning on January 24, 2022, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are fully vaccinated.

Verification

(a) the person has a medical contraindication that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen; or
(b) the person has a sincerely held religious belief that prevents them from completing a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen.

Evidence

COVID-19 test result

(4) Beginning on November 15, 2021, a person who is not fully vaccinated, other than a person who is a passenger or a pilot, must have provided to the cruise ship’s authorized representative evidence that they received their results of a test referred to in subsection 3(4) or 3(4.1), as applicable.

Continued testing

(5) Any person who provides evidence of a result referred to in paragraph 3(4)(a) or subsection 3(4.1), as applicable, must be tested for COVID-19 in accordance with the authorized representative’s vaccination policy every three days for the duration of the cruise ship’s voyage if that voyage is scheduled to last six days or more.

Exceptions

8 Sections 2 to 7 do not apply to

(a) a foreign cruise ship in the territorial sea of Canada that is exercising the right of innocent passage in accordance with international law and Article 19 of Section 3 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, done at Montego Bay on December 10, 1982;
(b) a pleasure craft; or
(c) a vessel that is operated for the purpose of saving lives, securing the safety of another vessel or preventing the immediate loss of another vessel.

Vaccination Policy

Content

9 (1) A vaccination policy must include

(a) the types and names of the vessels and cruise ships to which the policy applies;
(b) the measures taken by the authorized representative to comply with local public health guidelines to prevent the spread of COVID-19;
(c) the authorized representative’s obligations in relation to the policy;
(d) the measures implemented to ensure that this Interim Order’s requirements in relation to vaccination are complied with, including the requirements set out in paragraphs 2(1)(b) and (c), subsections 3(1) to (4.1), section 4, paragraphs 6(1)(b) and (c) and subsections 7(1) to (4);
(e) the means by which a person to whom the policy applies can provide evidence of their vaccination status and that they received one of the COVID-19 test results required by this Interim Order;
(f) the measures to follow in testing a person for COVID-19 when a vessel or cruise ship is on a voyage that is scheduled to last six days or more, including the measures to follow if the person receives a positive result;
(g) a procedure for verifying the evidence provided by a person who is subject to the policy who has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief;
(h) a procedure for issuing to a person referred to in paragraph (g) a document confirming the reason for which they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen;
(i) the measures to be taken to maintain physical distancing between the persons who work on board the vessels or cruise ships and the persons employed by the authorized representative who are not fully vaccinated, including any work arrangements for those persons who are not fully vaccinated and are unable to work on the vessels or cruise ships;
(j) a procedure for collecting the following information with respect to an in-person interaction in the workplace between a person who works on board a vessel or cruise ship of an authorized representative and a person employed by the authorized representative who is unvaccinated or whose vaccination status is unknown:
- (i) the date, time and location of the interaction, and
- (ii) the contact information for the persons involved in the interaction; and
(k) the consequences of not complying with the policy.

Medical contraindication

(2) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(g) and (h), the vaccination policy must provide for a procedure for issuing to a person a document confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of a medical contraindication only if the person provides a medical certificate from a medical doctor or nurse practitioner certifying that the person cannot be vaccinated due to a medical condition.

Canadian Human Rights Act

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(g) and (h), in the case of an employee of an authorized representative or a person hired by the authorized representative to provide a service, the vaccination policy must provide for a procedure for issuing to the employee or person a document confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if the authorized representative is obligated to accommodate them on the basis of this ground under the Canadian Human Rights Act.

Applicable legislation

(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (1)(g) and (h), in the case of an employee of an authorized representative’s contractor, agent or mandatary, the vaccination policy must provide for a procedure for issuing to the employee a document confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious beliefs only if they would be entitled to an accommodation on the basis of this ground under applicable legislation.

Vaccination policy kept on board

(5) Beginning on November 15, 2021, the authorized representative of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel must ensure that a copy of the vaccination policy is kept on board each such vessel or cruise ship of which they are the authorized representative and must make that policy available to the Minister on request.

Familiarity with policy

(6) Beginning on November 15, 2021, the authorized representative must ensure that the crew members on board the vessel or cruise ship are familiar with the content of the vaccination policy and must keep on board the vessel or cruise ship a record indicating that the crew members have familiarized themselves with the policy.

Authorized representative’s confirmation

10 (1) The authorized representative of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel must, no later than November 15, 2021, provide to the Minister written confirmation that they implemented a vaccination policy that meets the requirements set out in subsection 9(1).

Confirmation — later date

(2) If a vessel or a cruise ship begins operating after November 15, 2021, its authorized representative must provide the confirmation referred to in subsection (1) to the Minister on the day on which the vessel or cruise ship begins operating.

Documents

11 The authorized representative of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel must make information related to the implementation of the vaccination policy available to the Minister on the Minister’s request.

Amending vaccination policy

12 The authorized representative of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel must amend the vaccination policy on the request of the Minister and must submit the amended vaccination policy to the Minister within five business days after the day on which the request is made.

Evidence of vaccination — elements

13 (1) For the purposes of this Interim Order, evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be evidence issued by the government or the non-governmental entity that is authorized to issue it and must contain the following information:

(a) the name of the person who received the vaccine;
(b) the name of the government or the name of the non-governmental entity;
(c) the brand name or any other information that identifies the vaccine that was administered; and
(d) the dates on which the vaccine was administered or, if the evidence is one document issued for both doses and the document specifies only the date on which the most recent dose was administered, that date.

Evidence of vaccination — translation

(2) The evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be in English or French and any translation into English or French must be a certified translation.

Notice to Minister

14 An authorized representative referred to in section 2 or 6 who has reason to believe that a person provided evidence of COVID-19 vaccination or of a COVID-19 test result that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person’s name, contact information and, if applicable, their Candidate document number (CDN) or their Certificate of Competency number from the Standards for Training, Certification and Watchkeeping (STCW).

Reports

Weekly report

15 (1) The authorized representative of a vessel referred to in section 2 or of a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel must, every week, provide to the Minister a report that includes the following information for the preceding week:

(a) the name of the vessels and cruise ships that are the subject of the report;
(b) the number of persons employed by the authorized representative;
(c) the number of those persons who are fully vaccinated, partially vaccinated and not vaccinated;
(d) the number of persons to whom the authorized representative issued a document confirming that the person did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or a sincerely held religious belief and a record that confirms they provided the required evidence;
(e) the number of persons employed by the authorized representative who are unable to work because of COVID-19;
(f) the number of persons whose employment responsibilities require them to be on board the vessel or cruise ship and among those persons the number who are fully vaccinated, partially vaccinated or unvaccinated;
(g) the number of persons, from among the persons referred to in paragraph (f), to whom the authorized representative issued a document confirming the person did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or a sincerely held religious belief and the mitigation measures implemented in respect of those persons;
(h) the number of persons employed by the authorized representative who are scheduled to be on board a vessel but who are not permitted to board because they are not in compliance with the vaccination requirements under this Interim Order; and
(i) the number of instances in which information was collected in respect of an in-person interaction referred to in paragraph 9(1)(j).

Monthly report

(2) An authorized representative, of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred to in subsection 6(1) that is a Canadian vessel, who implements a vaccination policy that exceeds the requirements of this Interim Order and that applies to all their employees, including those whose employment responsibilities do not require them to be on board the vessel or cruise ship, is exempt from subsection (1), but must provide to the Minister, every month, a report that contains the information set out in paragraphs (1)(a) to (d).

Passenger Vessels that Provide Essential Services and Ferry Vessels

Permission

16 (1) A passenger vessel that provides essential services may be operated in Canadian waters if

(a) the vessel, at all times, carries not more than 50% of the maximum number of passengers that it is certified to carry, as indicated on its inspection certificate or Passenger Ship Safety Certificate issued under the Vessel Safety Certificates Regulations or on an equivalent certificate issued by a foreign government; or
(b) its authorized representative implements the measures to reduce transmission risks of COVID-19 set out in the Ship Safety Bulletin entitled Measures to Mitigate the Spread of COVID-19 on Passenger Vessels and Ferries, SSB No. 12/2020, published on April 17, 2020 by the Marine Safety and Security Directorate of Transport Canada, as amended from time to time or as replaced.

Notice to Minister

(2) The authorized representative of a vessel who implements measures in accordance with paragraph (1)(b) must notify the Minister, in writing, of the measures before implementing them and must keep a copy of the notice on board.

Guidelines

17 The authorized representative and master of a passenger vessel that provides essential services must make reasonable efforts to implement the measures contained in the guidelines that are set out in the document entitled COVID-19: Guidance Material for Passenger Vessel and Ferry Operators published on April 17, 2020 by the Marine Safety and Security Directorate of Transport Canada, as amended from time to time.

Ferry vessels

18 The authorized representative and master of a ferry vessel must ensure that the applicable requirements set out in section 2, paragraph 16(1)(a) or (b) and subsection 16(2) are met and must comply with the requirement set out in section 17.

Prohibition — Authorized Representative and Master

Prohibition

19 The authorized representative, and master, of a vessel referred to in section 2 or a cruise ship referred in subsection 6(1) must not permit the vessel or cruise ship to contravene any of the restrictions or prohibitions set out in this Interim Order.

Enforcement

Persons ensuring compliance

20 (1) The following persons are authorized to ensure compliance with this Interim Order:

(a) marine safety inspectors;
(b) members of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police;
(c) members of any harbour or river police force; and
(d) members of any provincial, county or municipal police force.

Powers and duties

(2) A person who is authorized to ensure compliance with this Interim Order may

(a) prohibit the movement of any vessel or direct it to be moved;
(b) stop and board any vessel at any reasonable time and
- (i) direct any person to answer reasonable questions and provide reasonable assistance, and
- (ii) require any person to provide, for examination, any document that the person is required to have in their possession or that is required to be kept on board; and
(c) verify by any means that the requirements of this Interim Order are met.

Obligation to comply

21 A person or vessel must comply with any direction given to them or a requirement or prohibition imposed on them under subsection 20(2).

Repeal

22 The Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Passenger Vessel Restrictions Due to the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19), made on August 11, 2021, is repealed.

SCHEDULE

(Subsection 1(1))

Passenger Vessels That Provide Essential Services
Item	Vessels
1	A vessel operating to protect public health or safety or the marine environment including a vessel that is involved in (a) search and rescue operations; or (b) emergency or environmental response.
2	A vessel that supports the activities of any of the following at their request: (a) the Minister; (b) the Minister of Fisheries and Oceans; (c) a member of the Canadian Coast Guard; or (d) a peace officer in the performance of their duties.
3	A vessel that operates when it is the most practical means to (a) give passengers access to their domicile or residence or their place of employment; (b) give passengers access to essential goods and services, including (i) goods or services directly related to the response to COVID-19, including medical equipment, testing and laboratory services, (ii) essential health services, including primary health care services and pharmacies, and (iii) food, potable water, pharmaceuticals and fuel; (c) transport cargo to resupply communities, businesses or industry; or (d) give passengers access to services that are declared to be essential services by the Government of Canada, a provincial government, a local authority or a government, council or other entity authorized to act on behalf of an Indigenous group.

Footnotes

Footnote a

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 5

Return to footnote a referrer

Footnote b

S.C. 2014, c. 39, s. 144

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Footnote c

S.C. 2015, c. 20, s. 12

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Footnote d

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 18

Return to footnote d referrer

Footnote e

S.C. 2001, c. 29, s. 39

Return to footnote e referrer

Footnote f

R.S., c. A-2

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Footnote g

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 11(1)

Return to footnote g referrer

Footnote h

S.C. 2018, c. 27, s. 694

Return to footnote h referrer

Footnote i

S.C. 2005, c. 29, s. 18

Return to footnote i referrer

Footnote j

S.C. 2001, c. 26

Return to footnote j referrer

Footnote k

S.C. 2018, c. 27, s. 690

Return to footnote k referrer

Footnote 1

The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) is the property of the American Chemical Society, and any use or redistribution, except as required in supporting regulatory requirements and/or for reports to the Government of Canada when the information and the reports are required by law or administrative policy, is not permitted without the prior, written permission of the American Chemical Society.

Return to footnote 1 referrer

Footnote 2

The federal business number is a nine-digit registration number issued by the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA).

Return to footnote 2 referrer